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Utter Pradesh (UPESSC) Assistant Professor Commerce Syllabus

 

UP Assistant Professor Question Paper 2025

Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions
1 Business Environment & International Business 4 6 Business Management and Human Resource Management 11
2 Accounting  13 7 Banking & Financial Institutions 6
3 Business Economics 6 8 Marketing Management 9
4 Business Finance 6 9 Legal Aspect of Business 3
5 Business Statistics and Research Methods 9 10 Income tax  & Corporate Tax Planning 3
Total No. of Questions = 70

Business Environment & International Business

  1. Which of the following is a non-tariff barrier to international trade?
    (a) Import duties
    (b) Product standards
    (c) Export subsidies
    (d) Countervailing duties
  2. The Balance of Payments of a country records
    (a) Only flow of goods and services among countries
    (b) All economic transactions between residents of a country and rest of the world
    (c) Only the flow of capital between countries
    (d) Only the governments revenue and expenditure
  3. FDI in India is allowed by two modes – Government route and
    (a) Trade route
    (b) Bank route
    (c) Automatic route
    (d) Approved route
  4. ASEAN is a trade arrangement among 10 member countries of Southeast Asia, which exclude
    (a) India
    (b) Laos
    (c) Vietnam
    (d) Brunei

Accounting 

  1. A, B and C share profit and loss in the ratio of 3 : 2 : 1. What will be the new profit sharing ratio of A and C, if B retires from the business?
    (a) 3 : 2
    (b) 2 : 1
    (c) 3 : 1
    (d) 1 : 3
  2. Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (A) and other is labeled as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A): Vouching is the examination of evidence which is in support of transaction.
    Reason (R): Verification is used comparatively in very limited sense.
    In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
    (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
  3. Which one is not a Personal Account ?
    (a) Prepaid salary account
    (b) Bank account
    (c) Proprietor’s account
    (d) Patent account
  4. In accounting, profit prior to incorporation is treated as
    (a) Capital reserve
    (b) Revenue reserve
    (c) Secret reserve
    (d) General reserve
  5. When the fixed cost is Rs. 14,000, profit is Rs. 6,000 and sales Rs. 1,00,000 then P/V ratio will be
    (a) 14%
    (b) 20%
    (c) 25%
    (d) 30%
  6. If bonus shares are issued out of pre-acquisition profit, it will have
    (a) Direct effect on the consolidated balance sheet
    (b) No effect on the consolidated balance sheet
    (c) No effect on net profit
    (d) None of the above
  7. Premium received on issue of shares is shown in the Balance Sheet under the head
    (a) Share Capital
    (b) Current liabilities and Provisions
    (c) Contingent liabilities
    (d) Reserves and Surplus
  8. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of Activity Based Costing (ABC) ?
    (a) It emphasises direct labour hours as the primary cost driven
    (b) It focuses on identifying and assigning cost to activities
    (c) It helps in understanding the real cost of products and services
    (d) It can be used to improve pricing and product mix decisions
  9. The ratio of variable cost to sales is 70 percent. The Break-even point occurs at 60 percent of the capacity
    sales. When fixed cost are Rs. 90,000, capacity sales will be
    (a) Rs. 3,00,000
    (b) Rs. 5,00,000
    (c) Rs. 3,75,000
    (d) Rs. 2,10,000
  10. Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding the concept of responsibility accounting ?
    (a) It involves the identification of responsibility centres within an organisation.
    (b) It focuses on evaluating the performance of individual managers.
    (c) It emphasises the use of historical cost data for performance evaluation.
    (d) It aim to improve the control and efficiency of operations.
  11. Window dressing is prohibited due to
    (a) Conservation convention
    (b) Convention of disclosure
    (c) Convention of materiality
    (d) Arrear of book accounts
  12. Which is not the characteristic of Break-even Point (BEP)?
    (a) No loss and no profit
    (b) Total revenue is equal to total cost
    (c) Contribution is equal to fixed cost
    (d) Contribution is less than fixed cost
  13. Measuring cost and value of human resource for organisation is related to
    (a) Human Resource Accounting
    (b) Social Accounting
    (c) Financial Accounting
    (d) Human Resource Audit

Business Economics

  1. Which type of elasticity plays a crucial role in International Price-Discrimination?
    (a) Price elasticity of demand
    (b) Income elasticity of demand
    (c) Cross elasticity of demand
    (d) Advertising elasticity of demand
  2. Excess capacity is noticed in which of the following market structures ?
    (a) Perfect competitions
    (b) Monopolistic competitions
    (c) Oligopoly
    (d) Monopoly
  3. Arrange the following steps in a sequence:
    I. Slump
    II. Recession
    III. Boom
    IV. Recovery
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) I, II, IV, III
    (b) I, IV, III, II
    (c) II, III, IV, I
    (d) I, III, II, IV
  4. Which is not an exception to the law of demand ?
    (a) War
    (b) Giffen Paradox
    (c) Demonstration
    (d) Inflation
  5. As per the indifference curve analysis, the marginal rate of substitution between two perfect substitutes will be
    (a) Increasing
    (b) Decreasing
    (c) Constant
    (d) Zero
  6. Which of the following pricing strategies involves setting a high initial price for a product and then gradually lowering it over time ?
    (a) Peak load pricing
    (b) Price penetration
    (c) Price skimming
    (d) Cost-plus pricing

Business Finance

  1. Which of the following is not a key determinant of a company’s optimal capital structure ?
    (a) The company’s current ratio
    (b) The company’s cost of debt
    (c) The company’s cost of equity
    (d) The company’s tax rate
  2. Which of the following is not a component of working capital ?
    (a) Inventory
    (b) Receivable accounts
    (c) Plant and equipment
    (d) Payable accounts
  3. Financial leverage is measured by
    (a) EAIT/EBT
    (b) EBIT/EAT
    (c) EBIT/EBT
    (d) None of these
  4. If earning per share on equity shares is 1.5 and market value of shares is Rs. 15, then cost of capital will be
    (a) 10%
    (b) 9%
    (c) 11%
    (d) None of these
  5. Operating leverage measures the relationship between
    (a) Sales revenue and cost of production
    (b) Sales revenue and EBIT
    (c) Sales revenue and EBT
    (d) EBIT and cost of production
  6. Capital structure is ideal when
    (a) Cost of capital is minimum
    (b) Profitability of the business maximise
    (c) Profitability and cost both are maximum
    (d) Both (a) and (b) of the above

Business Statistics and Research Methods

  1. Which of the following is not an assumption of the central limit theorem ?
    (a) The sample size is sufficiently large (n ≥ 30)
    (b) Population is normally distributed
    (c) Samples are independent
    (d) The population variance is known
  2. ‘Density Method’ is applied in computing
    (a) Mode
    (b) Median
    (c) Mean
    (d) None of these
  3. In a moderately asymmetrical distribution the standard deviation is equal to _____ of mean deviation.
    (a) 4/5
    (b) 5/4
    (c) 2/3
    (d) 3/2
  4. Match List – I with List – II.
    List – I
    a. Universe
    b. Data
    c. Mean
    d. Mode
    List – II
    I. Average
    II. Population
    III. Maximum
    IV. Information
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) a – III, b – IV, c – I, d – II
    (b) a – II, b – III, c – IV, d – I
    (c) a – II, b – IV, c – I, d – III
    (d) a – II, b – III, c – I, d – IV
  5. Given below are two statements. One is labeled as Assertion (a) and other is labeled as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A): Descriptive statistics uses data collection, presentation, analysis and interpretation.
    Reason (R): Inferential statistics uses probability sampling, forecasting theories.
    In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
    (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
  6. Select the wrong answers :
    a. Mode = 3 mean – 2 median
    b. Mode = 3 median – 2 mean
    c. Mode = 2 mean + 1 median
    d. Mode = 3 median + 2 mean
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
    (a) Only a, b, c
    (b) Only b, c, d
    (c) Only a, b, d
    (d) Only a, c, d
  7. The sum of deviations taken from the arithmetic means of a series is
    (a) Zero
    (b) Positive
    (c) Negative
    (d) None of the above
  8. What is the chance of drawing a King in a draw from a pack of 52 cards ?
    (a) 52
    (b) 1/12
    (c) 1 /13
    (d) 1/14
  9. Karl Pearson method was propounded in
    (a) 1890
    (b) 1980
    (c) 1900
    (d) None of these

Business Management and Human Resource Management

  1. The most suitable training method for developing person’s problem-solving ability is
    (a) Role playing
    (b) Conference
    (c) Laboratory training
    (d) Case study
  2. Arrange the following steps in a sequence.
    I. Psychoanalytic Theory
    II. Self-concept Theory
    III. Trait Theory
    IV. Socialisation Theory
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) I, II, IV, III
    (b) I, IV, III, II
    (c) II, III, IV, I
    (d) I, III, II, IV
  3. Match List – I with List – II.
    List – I
    a. Theory Z
    b. Equity theory
    c. Two factor theory
    d. Expectancy theory
    List – II
    I. Herzberg
    II. J. Stacy Adams
    III. Broom
    IV. William G. Ouchi
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) a – IV, b – II, c – I, d – III
    (b) a – I, b – II, c – III, d – IV
    (c) a – II, b – I, c – III, d – IV
    (d) a – IV, b – I, c – II, d – III
  4. Which leadership style is characterised by high concern for people and low concern for production, according to Black and Mouton’s managerial grid ?
    (a) Authority compliance management
    (b) Country club management
    (c) Impoverished management
    (d) Team management
  5. Which conflict management style is characterised by high assertiveness and low cooperativeness?
    (a) Competing
    (b) Collaborating
    (c) Avoiding
    (d) Accommodating
  6. Who developed the techniques of transactional analysis ?
    (a) Elton Mayo
    (b) Peter Drucker
    (c) Eric Berne
    (d) Adam Smith
  7. Which of the following is not internal source of recruitment ?
    (a) Promotion and transfer
    (b) Former employees
    (c) Contractors and jobbers
    (d) Extension of services
  8. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was enacted in
    (a) 2004
    (b) 2005
    (c) 2001
    (d) 2006
  9. Arrange the following steps in a sequence.
    I. Needs of love and belongingness
    II. Esteem needs
    III. Security needs
    IV. Physiological needs
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) I, II, IV, III
    (b) I, IV, III, II
    (c) II, III, IV, I
    (d) IV, III, I, II
  10. Arrange the following steps in a sequence.
    I. Identification of problems
    II. Choice of alternatives
    III. Evaluation of alternatives
    IV. Search for alternatives
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) I, II, IV, III
    (b) I, IV, III, II
    (c) II, III, IV, I
    (d) I, III, II, IV
  11. Match List – I with List – II.
    List – I
    a. Planning
    b. Organising
    c. Directing
    d. Controlling
    List – II
    I. Making relations in authority and responsibility
    II. Planning and decision making
    III. To compare actual work with pre-determined standards
    IV. Direction to sub-ordinates
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) a – I, b – III, c – II, d – IV
    (b) a – II, b – I, c – IV, d – III
    (c) a – III, b – II, c – I, d – IV
    (d) a – IV, b – III, c – II, d – I

Banking & Financial Institutions

  1. Which one is not the work of RBI?
    (a) Credit control
    (b) Custodian of Foreign Currency
    (c) Lending money directly to farmers
    (d) Banker’s Bank
  2. Central Co-operative Bank works at
    (a) National level
    (b) State level
    (c) Regional level
    (d) District level
  3. How many members are there in managing committee of RRB ?
    (a) 6
    (b) 8
    (c) 9
    (d) 15
  4. Arrange the following steps in a sequence.
    I. UTI Mutual Fund
    II. UTI
    III. SBI Mutual Fund
    IV. Franklin Templeton Asset Management India
    Choose the correct answer from the code given below :
    Code :
    (a) I, II, IV, III
    (b) I, IV, III, II
    (c) II, III, IV, I
    (d) I, III, II, IV
  5. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A): Loan and advances comprise the important areas of the investment of their money by Commercial Banks.
    Reason (R): Commercial Bank increase their fund also by creating credit.
    In the light of the above choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
    (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct
  6. Given below are two statements. One is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R).
    Assertion (A): The Central Office of Reserve Bank of India is in New Delhi.
    Reason (R): Control of credit is the Central Banking function of Reserve Bank.
    In the light of the above choose the correct answer from the options given below.
    (a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    (b) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    (c) (A) is correct, but (R) is not correct
    (d) (A) is not correct, but (R) is correct

Marketing Management

  1. Market penetration pricing is
    (a) Selling same product at two different prices
    (b) Initial fair price
    (c) Initial high price
    (d) Initial low price
  2. Five stages of consumers buying decision making process does not include
    (a) Problem recognition
    (b) Social factors
    (c) Evaluation of alternatives
    (d) Purchase decision
  3. In ‘IDIC’ CRM model ‘D’ stands for
    (a) Directing
    (b) Diverting
    (c) Differentiating
    (d) Defining
  4. The first component of the tri-component model of attitude is
    (a) Conative
    (b) Affective
    (c) Creative
    (d) Cognitive
  5. Which of the following is not an agricultural input ?
    (a) Tractor
    (b) Seed
    (c) Pesticide
    (d) None of the above
  6. As per the Service Quality Model, which of the following is not a determinant of service quality ?
    (a) Tangibles
    (b) Empathy
    (c) Conformance quality
    (d) Responsiveness
  7. The factor not affecting product mix are
    (a) Marketing
    (b) Production
    (c) Financial
    (d) Shareholders
  8. Advertising objectives does not include
    (a) Informing consumers
    (b) Changing attitudes
    (c) Developing awareness
    (d) Making entertainment
  9. Which of the following is not the function of channels of distribution ?
    (a) Managing production
    (b) Managing finances
    (c) Promotional activities
    (d) Pricing

Legal Aspect of Business

  1. Which of the following is not a Right of Surety?
    (a) Right of subrogation
    (b) Right to revoke
    (c) Right to claim set off
    (d) Right to claim indemnity
  2. Which of the following is not a qualification of holder in due-course ?
    (a) He must be a holder
    (b) He must be a holder without consideration
    (c) He must have become holder in good faith
    (d) None of these
  3. Secretary cannot reveal trade secrets which he comes to know during his course of employment is
    (a) Statutory liabilities
    (b) Contractual liabilities
    (c) Legal liabilities
    (d) Liabilities under agency contract

Income tax  & Corporate Tax Planning

  1. Deduction in respect of contribution to Agnipath Scheme is in
    (a) Sec. 80 CCA
    (b) Sec. 80 CCH
    (c) Sec. 80 CCG
    (d) Sec. 80 CCJ
  2. Entertainment allowance for non-government employees are
    (a) Fully exempted
    (b) Fully taxable
    (c) Partially taxable
    (d) Partially taxable in selected areas
  3. As per the provisions of the Income Tax Act, the due date of first installment of advance tax is _______ of the previous year.
    (a) On or before 15th June
    (b) On or before 30th June
    (c) On or before 15th September
    (d) On or before 30th September

UP Assistant Professor Question Paper 2026 [Cancelled Paper] 

Examination Held on 19 April 2026 — 2nd Shift

Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions
1 Business Environment & International Business 8 6 Business Management and Human Resource Management 7
2 Accounting  10 7 Banking & Financial Institutions 4
3 Business Economics 6 8 Marketing Management 6
4 Business Finance 10 9 Legal Aspect of Business 4
5 Business Statistics and Research Methods 9 10 Income tax  & Corporate Tax Planning 6
Total No. of Questions = 70

Business Environment & International Business

  1. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List I
    a. Ricardian Theory
    b. Heckscher-Ohlin Theory
    c. Product Life Cycle
    d. New Trade Theory
    List II
    i. Factor endowment
    ii. Technological difference
    iii. Innovation and maturity stages
    iv. Economies of scale and imperfect competition
    Codes:
    (a) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
    (b) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
    (c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
    (d) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv
  2. What is the monetary jurisdiction of district forum as per Consumer Protection Act, 2019 after the amendments?
    (a) Rs.50 lakh
    (b) More than Rs.2 crore
    (c) Rs.50 lakh – Rs.2 crore
    (d) Rs.20 lakh
  3. A foreign automobile firm faces sudden industry-specific emission norms and higher sectoral taxes in the host country, increasing its operating costs. Identify the risk referred to in the situation in context of international business environment.
    (a) Micro political risk
    (b) Macro political risk
    (c) Economic risk
    (d) Cultural risk
  4. World Trade Organization (WTO) was initially established as a result of the approval of which proposal?
    (a) Dunkel Draft
    (b) Doha Declaration
    (c) Tokyo Round
    (d) Kennedy Round
  5. Country A specializes in producing labour-intensive goods due to abundant labour, while Country B exports capital-intensive goods because of abundant capital. Both countries gain through specialization and trade.
    Based on the information given above, which theory of international trade is being referred to?
    (a) Absolute Advantage Theory — Adam Smith
    (b) New Trade Theory — Paul Krugman
    (c) Factor Endowment Theory — Eli Heckscher and Bertil Ohlin
    (d) Comparative Advantage Theory — David Ricardo
  6. Which of the following statements regarding Fiscal Policy are correct?
    I. It is formulated by the Central Government.
    II. It deals with government revenue and expenditure.
    III. It is implemented by RBI.
    Select the correct answer:
    (a) I and III only
    (b) I and II only
    (c) II and III only
    (d) I, II and III
  7. Ad valorem duty is a tax levied on the basis of:
    (a) Weight of goods
    (b) Quantity of goods
    (c) Value of goods
    (d) Place of origin
  8. What is meant by Gross National Product?
    (a) The total value of all the transactions in the country
    (b) Total value of goods and services produced in the country – Depreciation
    (c) Total value of goods and services produced in the country + Net factor income from abroad
    (d) Total value of goods and services produced in the country + Gross factor income from abroad

Accounting 

  1. What does the Margin of Safety represent in cost-volume-profit analysis?
    (a) The excess of fixed cost over variable cost
    (b) The excess of actual sales over break-even sales
    (c) The excess of contribution over profit
    (d) The excess of total cost over total sales
  2. Which of the following transactions is classified under Cash Flow from Financing Activities?
    (a) Sale of investments
    (b) Purchase of machinery for cash
    (c) Payment of salaries to employees
    (d) Issue of equity shares for cash
  3. The prohibition on issuing of shares at a discount (except for sweat equity shares) is covered under ————- of the Companies Act, 2013?
    (a) Section 53
    (b) Section 52
    (c) Section 55
    (d) Section 54
  4. When a forfeited share is reissued at a discount, the maximum permissible discount is equal to:
    (a) The amount originally received on the share
    (b) The total amount unpaid on the share
    (c) The total nominal value of the share
    (d) The amount decided by the company directors
  5. Under the Lev & Schwartz model, value of human resources is based on:
    (a) Training cost incurred
    (b) Present value of future earnings
    (c) Replacement cost of employees
    (d) Market value of similar workforce
  6. Before acquisition, the bills payable in the books of the transferee company amounted to Rs.10,00,000. Out of these, Rs.6,00,000 were shown in the form of bills receivable in the books of the transferor company. What journal entry should also be passed after acquisition in the books of the transferee company to mutually cancel these bills?
    (a) Bills Receivable A/c Dr. 6,00,000
    To Bills Payable A/c. 6,00,000
    (b) Bills Payable A/c Dr. Rs. 10,00,000
    To Bills Receivable A/c 4,00,000
    To Capital Reserve A/c 6,00,000
    (c) Bills Payable A/c Dr. 10,00,000
    To Bills Receivable A/c 10,00,000
    (d) Bills Payable A/c Dr. 6,00,000
    To Bills Receivable A/c. 6,00,000
  7. In process costing, the cost of abnormal wastage is recorded by:
    (a) Abnormal Wastage Account debited and Process Account credited
    (b) Normal Loss Account debited and Process Account credited
    (c) Profit and Loss Account debited and Process Account credited
    (d) Process Account debited and Abnormal Wastage Account credited
  8. To which account is the loss incurred during the pre-incorporation period debited?
    (a) Trading Account
    (b) General Reserve Account
    (c) Profit and Loss Account
    (d) Goodwill Account
  9. If a firm earns a profit margin of 10% and generates sales equal to three times its total assets, the ROI of the firm will be:
    (a) 30%
    (b) 13%
    (c) 10%
    (d) 33%
  10. X Ltd. holds 48% of the equity share capital of Y Ltd. The remaining shares are widely dispersed among small shareholders. X Ltd. also has the contractual right to appoint the majority of directors of Y Ltd. Under the Companies Act, 2013, which of the following correctly describes the relationship between X Ltd. and Y Ltd.?
    (a) Y Ltd. is not a subsidiary since X Ltd. holds less than 50% shares.
    (b) Y Ltd. becomes an associate company due to minority shareholding.
    (c) Y Ltd. is a subsidiary because control exists through board composition.
    (d) Y Ltd. is a joint venture due to dispersed ownership.

Business Economics

  1. If Average Revenue (AR) is constant at all levels of output, then Marginal Revenue (MR) will be:
    (a) Increasing at a decreasing rate
    (b) Less than Average Revenue at all levels
    (c) Greater than Average Revenue at all levels
    (d) Equal to Average Revenue at all levels
  2. Which of the following statements regarding pricing is/are correct?
    I. Price is the most flexible element of marketing mix.
    II. Pricing decisions directly affect revenue and profit.
    III. Pricing is independent of market competition.
    Options:
    (a) I only
    (b) I, II and III
    (c) I and II only
    (d) II only
  3. Which of the following circumstances (in relation to the launch of a new product) does not favour a penetration pricing strategy?
    (a) The firm wishes to discourage new entrants to the markets.
    (b) Low ratio of variable to fixed cost.
    (c) There are significant economies of scale.
    (d) Demand is relatively inelastic.
  4. Price penetration strategy is adopted to:
    (a) Recover research cost in shortest period
    (b) Target premium customers with luxury pricing
    (c) Maximize short-term profit at higher price
    (d) Stimulate demand and capture large market share
  5. Which of the statements given below is false?
    (a) When demand is perfectly elastic, Average Revenue equals Marginal Revenue.
    (b) When demand is unit elastic, Marginal Revenue equals zero.
    (c) When demand is inelastic, Marginal Revenue is positive.
    (d) Total revenue is maximum at unit elasticity.
  6. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (a): Real national income is a better indicator of economic welfare than nominal income.
    Reason (R): Real income removes the effect of price level changes.
    Select the correct answer using the options given below.
    (a) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (c) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).

Business Finance

  1. According to Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM), which statement is not correct?
    (a) Investors are risk averse and maximise expected utility of wealth.
    (b) Investors may borrow and lend within limits at risk-free rate of interest.
    (c) Capital market is not dominated by any individual investor.
    (d) Capital markets are in equilibrium.
  2. Which of the following statements regarding dividend policy is/are correct?
    I. The Modigliani-Miller theory supports dividend irrelevance.
    II. Walter’s model assumes no retained earnings.
    III. The Gordon growth model supports dividend relevance.
    Options:
    (a) I, II and III
    (b) I and III only
    (c) II only
    (d) I only
  3. Why do firms use derivatives?
    (a) To strengthen capital structure through equity financing
    (b) To manage exposure to risk in financial markets
    (c) To improve liquidity position in competitive markets
    (d) To increase profitability through higher product pricing
  4. A risk that arises due to macroeconomic factors such as inflation, interest rate changes, and political instability, and cannot be eliminated through portfolio diversification, is known as
    (a) Unsystematic risk
    (b) Diversifiable risk
    (c) Operational risk
    (d) Systematic risk
  5. Financial break-even level of EBIT (Earnings Before Interest and Tax) is one at which:
    (a) EPS is One
    (b) EPS is Zero
    (c) EPS is Highest
    (d) EPS is Minimum
  6. Liquidity in mutual funds means that investors can:
    (a) Trade shares only through stock exchange
    (b) Convert units into company debenture
    (c) Redeem units easily at prevailing Net Asset Value
    (d) Withdraw funds after fixed maturity period
  7. If Operating Leverage is 3:1, Financial Leverage is 2:1, Interest charged is Rs.20 lakhs, and Variable Cost is 60% of sales, then find the value of sales.
    (a) Rs.120 lakhs
    (b) Rs.300 lakhs
    (c) Rs.240 lakhs
    (d) Rs.400 lakhs
  8. In factoring, finance is provided against:
    (a) Trade receivables
    (b) Fixed assets
    (c) Share capital
    (d) Inventory
  9. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (A): The demand curve of a Giffen good slopes upward.
    Reason (R): Income effect is positive and stronger than the substitution effect.
    Select the correct answer:
    (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (b) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    (c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (d) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  10. Currency swap is a method of:
    (a) Speculating in foreign exchange
    (b) Hedging against foreign exchange risk
    (c) Leverage instrument used by cooperative banks
    (d) Payment in international trade

Business Statistics and Research Methods

  1. If the sum of the squares of rank differences is 6 and there are two variables X and Y with 8 items each, what would be the coefficient of rank correlation?
    (a) 1
    (b) 0.07
    (c) 0.93
    (d) 0.67
  2. What does a correlation coefficient (r) with a value of +0.65 indicate?
    (a) Moderate positive correlation
    (b) Perfect negative correlation
    (c) No correlation
    (d) Perfect positive correlation
  3. The average marks in Statistics of 10 students of a class was 58. A new student took admission with 62 marks whereas two existing students left the college. If the marks of these students were 30 and 29, then the average marks of the remaining students would be:
    (a) 61
    (b) 58.3
    (c) 64.78
    (d) 70
  4. An insurance company observes that, on average, 2 accident claims are filed per day. The probability of more than one claim occurring in a very short interval of time is negligible. Which probability distribution can be used to model the number of claims per day in this situation?
    (a) Poisson distribution
    (b) Uniform distribution
    (c) Binomial distribution
    (d) Normal distribution
  5. Match the List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    List I (Test)
    a. Regression
    b. t-test
    c. Chi-square test
    d. F-test
    List II (Propounder)
    i. Karl Pearson
    ii. Prof. Gosset
    iii. Sir Francis Galton
    iv. R.A. Fisher
    Codes:
    (a) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
    (b) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
    (c) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
    (d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
  6. Spearman’s rank correlation coefficient is used when:
    (a) Population is not normally distributed
    (b) Sample size is large
    (c) Data are normally distributed
    (d) Variables are quantitative
  7. Which distribution is called the Probability Distribution of Rare Events?
    (a) Uniform distribution
    (b) Poisson distribution
    (c) Normal distribution
    (d) Binomial distribution
  8. Which of the following statements relating to Correlation and Regression are true?
    I. The coefficient of correlation is independent of change of origin and scale.
    II. The coefficient of correlation between the two variables is the arithmetic average of the two regression coefficients.
    III. The probable error of the coefficient of correlation is 0.6745 times its standard error.
    IV. Coefficient of correlation multiplied by the ratio between the standard deviations of the two variables denotes the slope of the regression line.
    Options:
    (a) II, III and IV
    (b) II and IV
    (c) I, II and III
    (d) I, III and IV
  9. The following statements relate to sampling distribution. Choose the correct code for the statements being correct or incorrect.
    Statement I: Sampling distribution of mean is normally distributed irrespective of the type of population distribution and sample size.
    Statement II: The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of mean is less than the standard deviation of the population distribution.
    (a) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
    (b) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
    (c) Both Statements are correct.
    (d) Both Statements are incorrect.

Business Management and Human Resource Management

  1. Span of control refers to:
    (a) Number of departments under a manager
    (b) Number of subordinates reporting to a superior
    (c) Authority delegated to managers
    (d) Length of hierarchy
  2. A project manager in an IT firm gains influence over team members not because of their formal position but because the team trusts their technical expertise and often seeks their guidance to solve complex coding issues. Meanwhile, another manager motivates the team by promising bonuses and incentives for meeting tight deadlines. According to French and Raven’s Bases of Social Power, which types of power are being illustrated in the two scenarios respectively?
    (a) Referent Power – Coercive Power
    (b) Coercive Power – Legitimate Power
    (c) Expert Power – Reward Power
    (d) Legitimate Power – Reward Power
  3. In controlling function, “feedforward control” occurs:
    (a) During evaluation
    (b) Before actual performance
    (c) At financial audit stage
    (d) After performance deviation
  4. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (a): Halo effect reduces objectivity in performance appraisal.
    Reason (R): Halo effect occurs when recent performance dominates evaluation.
    Select the correct answer:
    (a) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (d) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  5. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (a): Increasing salary always increases employee motivation.
    Reason (R): Salary is classified as a hygiene factor in Herzberg’s theory.
    Select the correct answer:
    (a) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (c) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (d) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
  6. BARS combines the features of which two methods of performance appraisal?
    (a) Graphic Rating Scale and Critical Incident Method
    (b) Essay method and Ranking method
    (c) MBO and 360-Degree Feedback
    (d) Checklist method and Forced Distribution method
  7. Organizational change which involves a major, strategic change resulting from planned programs is referred to as:
    (a) Tuning
    (b) Re-creation/Overhauling
    (c) Redirecting/Reorienting
    (d) Adapting

Banking & Financial Institutions

  1. Which of the following statements regarding Basel norms are correct?
    I. Basel I norms aim at strengthening bank capital adequacy.
    II. Basel III introduced capital conservation buffer.
    III. Basel norms are applicable only to cooperative banks.
    Options:
    (a) I only
    (b) I and II only
    (c) II only
    (d) I, II and III
  2. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (A): Money market deals in long-term securities.
    Reason (R): Treasury Bills and Commercial Papers are traded in money market
    Select the correct answer using the options given below:
    (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
    (b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
    (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    (d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
  3. Phase I of Nationalization of commercial Banks in India took place in the year:
    (a) 1977
    (b) 1969
    (c) 1971
    (d) 1981
  4. Banks can achieve capital adequacy by:
    (a) Increasing short-term borrowings from capital market
    (b) Reducing interest rates on term deposit liabilities
    (c) Increasing own funds and reducing risk-weighted assets
    (d) Expanding branch network across rural regions

Marketing Management

  1. Under which philosophy do firms believe consumers will buy more if persuaded through aggressive promotion?
    (a) Selling concept
    (b) Societal marketing concept
    (c) Product concept
    (d) Marketing concept
  2. AIDA model stands for:
    (a) Appeal–Interest–Decision–Action
    (b) Awareness–Interest–Demand–Action
    (c) Attention–Image–Demand–Awareness
    (d) Attention–Interest–Desire–Action
  3. Two statements labelled as Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are given below. Read them carefully and select the correct option:
    Assertion (a): Push strategy is effective when brand loyalty is high.
    Reason (R): Retailers actively promote demanded brands.
    Select the correct answer using the options given below:
    (a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
    (b) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.
    (c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
    (d) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
  4. In the context of strategic marketing planning, market segmentation enables a firm to:
    (a) Anticipate and neutralise macro-environmental uncertainties through adaptive positioning.
    (b) Evaluate heterogeneous consumer preferences and select segments that align with the firm’s competitive capabilities.
    (c) Achieve cost efficiencies by standardising output across heterogeneous customer groups.
    (d) Reduce competitive rivalry by fragmenting the market into smaller, uncontested spaces.
  5. Which of the following is not part of the augmented product?
    (a) Packaging
    (b) After-sales service
    (c) Installation
    (d) Warranty
  6. A firm believes that consumers will prefer products that offer maximum quality, performance and innovative features. This reflects:
    (a) Selling concept
    (b) Societal marketing concept
    (c) Production concept
    (d) Product concept

Legal Aspect of Business

  1. A pharmaceutical company applies for a patent for a new crystalline form of a known drug showing better stability with similar therapeutic efficacy, under the Indian Patents Act, 1970. What will be the decision of the patent-granting authority in this situation?
    (a) Patentable due to industrial applicability
    (b) Non-patentable under Section 3(d)
    (c) Rejectable only after pre-grant opposition
    (d) Patentable as incremental innovation
  2. Under the provisions relating to quasi-contracts, S supplies necessaries suitable to the condition in life of L, a lunatic. There is no valid contract between S and L. In this situation, S is entitled to:
    (a) Claim damages for breach of contract
    (b) Sue L personally for breach of contract
    (c) Recover nothing, as agreements with lunatics are void
    (d) Recover reasonable compensation from the property of L
  3. All partners of an LLP die in an accident. What happens to the LLP?
    (a) It automatically dissolves
    (b) It continues as a separate legal entity
    (c) It converts into partnership
    (d) It becomes government property
  4. Zero-rated supply differs from exempt supply because zero-rated supply:
    (a) Does not allow Input Tax Credit and refund.
    (b) Allows Input Tax Credit and refund.
    (c) Is outside the scope of GST.
    (d) Applies only to services.

Income tax  & Corporate Tax Planning

  1. Which one of the following will be considered a case of tax avoidance?
    (a) ABC Ltd. claims depreciation on a motor car recorded as a business asset, although the vehicle is substantially used by a Director for personal purposes.
    (b) A foreign parent company purchases goods from its Indian subsidiary at Rs.1,000 per unit while similar goods are sold to an unrelated enterprise at Rs.2,000 per unit.
    (c) Rohan deposits Rs.1,00,000 in a tax-saver fixed deposit with a nationalised bank and claims deduction as permitted under statutory provisions.
    (d) Mr. Nikhil pays Rs. 5,000 as life insurance premium on a policy taken in the name of his minor claims deduction under the relevant provisions of the Income Tax Act.
  2. Match the following Tax Concepts with their appropriate Sections:
    List I (Concept)
    a. Advance payment of tax
    b. Tax Deducted at Source (TDS) from salary
    c. Best Judgment Assessment
    d. E-filing of Income-tax Return
    List II (Section)
    i. Section 144
    ii. Section 208
    iii. Section 139D
    iv. Section 192
    Codes:
    (a) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
    (b) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii
    (c) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i
    (d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
  3. Which of the following incomes is fully exempt under Section 10(1) of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
    (a) Income from house property used for self-residence
    (b) Capital gains on sale of rural land
    (c) Agricultural income
    (d) Interest on bank fixed deposits
  4. Which of the following statements regarding clubbing of income is correct?
    (a) Clubbing provisions apply only to individual assessee.
    (b) Remuneration received by spouse from a concern is always clubbed.
    (c) Income of a minor child is always taxable in the hands of parents.
    (d) Income transferred without transfer of asset is clubbed.
  5. Mr. Ram is an Indian citizen who resides in Pune. He went to Italy for the purpose of employment on August 15, 2022 and came back to India on November 10, 2023. He has never been out of India in the past. What would be his residential status for the assessment year 2023–24?
    (a) Non-Resident
    (b) Non-Resident and Ordinarily Resident in India
    (c) Resident but Not Ordinarily Resident
    (d) Resident and Ordinarily Resident
  6. What was the maximum deduction available under Section 80 TTB of the Income-tax Act, 1961?
    (a) Rs.10,000
    (b) Rs.50,000
    (c) Rs.1,00,000
    (d) Rs.25,000

 

Assistant Professor, Government Degree College Examination Commerce Syllabus

Conducted by UTTAR PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

Unit-1 : Accounting and Finance

Basic accounting principles, concepts and postulates; Nature, scope and objectives of Management Accounting; Corporate Accounting: Issue, forfeiture and reissue of shares, Liquidation of companies, amalgamation and reconstruction of companies; Holding company Accounts; Indian Accounting Standards and IFRS, GreenAccounting, Cost Accounting: Marginal costing and Break-even analysis, Standard costing; Budgetary Control, Process costing, Life cycle costing, Target costing, JIT; Ratio Analysis, Fund flow and Cash flowAnalysis, Cost-volume profitAnalysis.

Unit-2 : Statistics and Research Methodology

Measures of Central tendency, Measures of dispersion and skewness, correlation and regression of two variables, Coefficient of Association, Probability: Addition, Multiplication and Bayes’ theorem; Probability distributions: Binomial, Poisson and Normal distributions; Research: Concept and types, Research designs; Data: Collection and Classification of data; Sampling and estimation: Concepts, Methods of sampling; standard error; Hypothesis testing; z-test, t-test, ANOVA, SPSS, Chisquare test; Repot writing.

Unit-3 : Marketing

Concept and approaches of marketing; Marketing channels; Marketing Mix; Strategic marketing planning; Market segmentation; Product decisions: concept, Product line, Product mix decisions, Product life cycle; New product development; Pricing decisions: Factors affecting price determination, Pricing policies and strategies; Promotion decisions, Promotion methods: Advertising, Personal selling, Publicity, Sales Promotion tools and techniques, Promotions mix; Consumer behaviour: consumer buying process factors influencing consumer buying decisions, CRM, Service marketing; New trends in marketing: Social marketing, Online marketing, GEM Portal, Green marketing, Direct marketing, Rural marketing.

Unit-4 : Human Resource Management

Concept, role and functions of HRM; Human resource planning; Recruitment and selection; Training and development, Succession planning, Compensation management: Job evaluation, Incentives and fringe benefits, Performance appraisal methods, Collective bargaining and workers’ participation in management, Personality: Perception; Attitudes, Emotions; Group dynamics; Power and politics; Conflict and negotiation; Stress management; Green HRM, Organizational Culture; Organizational Development.

Unit-5 : Business Economics

Concept, Nature and significance of Business Economies, Principles of business economics, Demand Analysis, Production Analysis, Pricing Analysis, Price determination under different market forms: Perfect competition; Monopolistic competition; Oligopoly, Monopoly, Price discrimination, Business Cycles, Inflation.

Unit-6 : Business Environment

Concept, Nature and significance of Business environment, Elements, Techniques of environmental scanning and monitoring; Economic systems; Government Policies, Socio- cultural environment, Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR), NITI Aayog, Legal environment: Brief Study of Indian Contract Act 1872, The companies Act 2013, Goods and Services Tax (GST).

Unit-7 : Business Management

Principles and functions of management; Essentials of Planning, Importance and process of decision making, Nature of organising, Different types of organisational structure, Responsibility and authority: Delegation of authority and decentralization, Leadership and its role in management of organizations, Nature, Process and Types of control, Essentials of an effective control system; Ethical issues in management, Social Responsibilities of business, Corporate governance.

Unit-8 : Auditing

Concept, objectives and classification of audit, Basic principles governing an audit, Independent financial audit, Internal audit, Vouching, Verification and valuation of assets
and liabilities, Audit of financial statements and Audit Report, Appointment, Qualification, Rights, duties and liabilities of auditor, Cost audit, Recent Trends in Auditing: Management audit; Energy audit; Environment audit; Systems audit; safety audit.

Unit-9 : Entrepreneurship and Small Business

Evolution; Models of organizational behaviour; Personality; perception and learning; Transaction Analysis, Theories and styles of Leadership, Management by Objective (MBO), Motivation.

Unit-10 : Organisational Theory and Behaviour

Functions, Types and qualities of an Entrepreneur, Main Theories of Entrepreneurship, Environmental factors affecting Entrepreneurial Development; Role of Government and other institutions in the development of entrepreneurship in India; Role of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) in Indian Economy; Problems of MSMEs in India, Start-up, Skill Development.

UP Assistant Professor Government Degree College Question Paper 2025

Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions Units No.  Name of Unit No.of Questions
1 Accounting and Finance 4 6 Business Environment 11
2 Statistics and Research Methodology  13 7 Business Management 6
3 Marketing 6 8 Auditing 9
4 Human Resource Management 6 9 Entrepreneurship and Small Business 3
5 Business Economics 9 10 Organisational Theory and Behaviour 3
Total No. of Questions = 70

Unit-1 : Accounting and Finance
Unit-2 : Statistics and Research Methodology
Unit-3 : Marketing
Unit-4 : Human Resource Management
Unit-5 : Business Economics
Unit-6 : Business Environment
Unit-7 : Business Management
Unit-8 : Auditing
Unit-9 : Entrepreneurship and Small Business
Unit-10 : Organisational Theory and Behaviour

Business Environment & International Business

31. A population has a mean 159.7 cm and standard deviation 4.5 cm. How large a sample would be necessary to make the standard error of mean less than 0.5 cm?
(a) N ≥ 50
(b) N ≥ 81
(c) N ≥ 100
(d) N ≥ 20
32. Consider the following statements with reference to International Financial Reporting Standard (IFRS).
1. The revenue is shown at the fair value of the money received or receivable.
2. The revenue is shown at the true value of the money received or receivable. Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor2
(d) Both 1 and 2
33. According to Joseph A. Schumpeter, innovation can take place in how many ways/forms?
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 7
(d) 5
34. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched with reference to four quadrants of Johari window?
(a) The open self – Known to self and also known to others
(b) The Hidden self – Unknown to self but known to others
(c) The unknown self – Unknown to self and unknown to others
(d) The Blind self – Unknown to self but known to others
35. Consider the following statements with reference to performance appraisal.
1. It rates a job and job holder.
2. It is compulsory to conduct it on regular basis.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
36. Scientists, software programmers and sales people often have this type of leader
(a) Bureaucratic
(b) Free Reign/Laissez Faire
(c) Autocratic
(d) Democratic
37. Consider the following statements with reference to E-Amrit.
1. E-Amrit is related to information on electric vehicles.
2. The portal of E-Amrit has been developed and hosted by NITI Aayog.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
38. “No smoking at workplace”, which type of plan this statement refers to?
(a) Policy
(b) Method
(c) Objective
(d) Rule
39. Stock Control Data for material P are
Annual usage – 3600 units
Cost per unit – Rs.100
Cost of placing an order – Rs. 40
Stock Holding Cost 20% of the overall stock value and lead time is 1 month.
The EOQ based on the above data is
(a) 160 units
(b) 120 units
(c) 90 units
(d) 175 units
40. Fabian Entrepreneurs are characterized as
(a) Highly Innovative and risk taking
(b) Aggressive and competitive
(c) Visionary and ambitious
(d) Shy and Lazy
41. Consider the following statements for indifference curves.
l. Indifference curves have a negative slope.
2. Upper indifference curves indicate a lower level of satisfaction.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
42. Which audit is concerned with examining accounting procedures?
(a) Statutory audit
(b) System audit
(c) Cost audit
(d) Internal audit
43. According to tri-dimensional grid which one of the following is a more effective leadership style?
(a) Missionary
(b) Autocrat
(c) Developer
(d) Compromiser
44. Which of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?
(Functions of Marketing) (Activities)
(a) Research functions – Pricing
(b) Physical functions – Branding
(c) Facilitating functions – Financing
(d) Exchange functions – Selling
45. Which of the following is NOT the branch of the classical theory of management?
(a) Bureaucracy
(b) Scientific approach
(c) Management Process
(d) System approach
46. In association of attributes, the number of units in different classes are called
(a) Class frequencies
(b) Order of classes
(c) Positive classes
(d) Number of classes
47. Which of the following is NOT a function of the works committee?
(a) Discussing conditions of works like lighting, sanitation, ventilation
(b) Considering major changes in condition of service
(c) Promoting good relations between employers and workers
(d) Encouraging thrift and savings
48. Consider the following statements with reference to Audit Report.
1. The name of the place where the audit report is signed should not be required.
2. An Unqualified report is issued when financial statements give true and fair view.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
49. Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched in context to maturity stage of a product life cycle?
(a) Profits – High profits
(b) Sale – Rapidly rising sale
(c) Objective – Maximize profit while defending market share
(d) Costs – Low cost per customer
50. The process through which representatives of management and the Union meet to negotiate a Labor Agreement is called
(a) Arbitration
(b) Collective Bargaining
(c) Strike
(d) Mediation
51. Which one of the following pairs approaches of HRD system is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Queen Bee Approach — Single individual person
(b) Gimmickery Approach — Motivation
(c) Creative Approach — Innovation
(d) Input Approach — Outputs
52. The provisions related to the Audit Report of a company are covered under which Section of the Companies Act 2013?
(a) Section 139
(b) Section 148
(c) Section 149
(d) Section 143(2)
53. Which of the following is NOT included in preparing a cost statement?
(a) Carriage outward
(b) Cost of catalogues
(c) Cash discount allowed on sales
(d) Commission on sales agents
54. Research conducted to identify the characteristics of a group is termed as
(a) Exploratory Research
(b) Diagnostic Research
(c) Experimental Research
(d) Descriptive Research
55. Leaders who determine what subordinates need to do achieve objectives, classify those requirements and help subordinates become confident they can reach their objectives are called
(a) Charismatic leaders
(b) Transformational Leaders
(c) Autocratic Leaders
(d) Transactional leaders
56. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List – I (Contract) List – II (Section of Indian Contract Act, 1872)
1. Consent A. Section 14
2. Free consent B. Section 13
3. Coercion C. Section 15
4. Undue Influence D. Section I 7
5. Fraud E. Section 16
Code:
(a) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D, 5 – E
(b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – E, 5 – D
(c) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D, 5 – E
(d) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D, 5 – E
57. Findings of Hawthorne experiments leads to
(a) Human behaviour approach
(b) Human relations approach
(c) Decision theory approach
(d) System approach
58. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. In Monopoly, Price is greater than the marginal Revenue and greater than marginal cost.
2. In Perfect competition, price is equal to marginal revenue and marginal cost.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Only 2
59. Which of the following is NOT a pillar of classical theory of organization?
(a) Unity of command
(b) Structure
(c) Span of control
(d) Division of labour
60. Which of the following statement is incorrect according to Section 149 of the Companies Act – 2013?
(a) Every public company must have at least three directors
(b) One person company must have one director
(c) The Act fixes maximum number of directors to be 20
(d) Every private company must have at least two directors
61. Large differences in living standards across countries are primarily explained by
(a) Differences in Population size
(b) Differences in Government subsidies
(c) Differences in minimum wage laws
(d) Differences in workers’ productivity
62. Which of the following is NOT an example of error of principle?
(a) Non-provision of depreciation
(b) Undervaluation of stock
(c) Error in totalling
(d) Wrong provision for outstanding expenses
63. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Constitution of the Goods and Service Tax (GST) council?
(a) Article 265
(b) Article 300 A
(c) Article 246
(d) Article 279 A (1)
64. Match List – I with List II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List-I (Types of Entrepreneur) List-II (Description)
1. Innovative A. Ability to think/do newer
2. Imitative B. Die-hard conservative
3. Fabian C. Who do not show initiative
4. Drone D. Follow the path to shown by innovative entrepreneur
Code:
(a) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
(b) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
(c) 1 – A, 2 – D, 3 – C, 4 – B
(d) 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – B, 4 – D
65. Which of the following is NOT an uncontrollable factor affecting marketing mix?
(a) Consumer’s behaviour
(b) Product policy
(c) Competitor’s behaviour
(d) Industrial development
66. According to William E. Halal’s Return-on-Resources model of Corporate Performance corporate social responsiveness is difficult because
(a) Firms do not have enough resources.
(b) Government regulations restrict Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR).
(c) Social Groups are unwilling to co-operate.
(d) No corporate social posture will be value free
67. Which of the following is incorrect in context to co-efficient of skewness?
(a) SK_p = (Mean -Mode)/(Standard Deviation)
(b) 〖SK〗_b = (Q_3+ Q_1 –2 Median)/(Q_3+ Q_1 )
(c) 〖SK〗_b = (Q_3+ Q_1 –2 Median)/(Q_3 – Q_1 )
(a) SK_p = (3 (Mean -Median))/σ
68. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is NOT a decisional role of managers?
(a) Entrepreneur
(b) Figurehead
(c) Negotiator
(d) Resource allocator
69. Given below are two statements, one is Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The average fixed cost goes on programming declining
Reason (R): As the output increases, the total fixed costs get spread over a larger and larger output.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(b) (A) is true but (R) is false
(c) (A) is false but (R) is true
(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)
70. “Power is not revealed by striking hard or often, but by striking true.” Who said?
(a) John F. Kennedy
(b) Garry Dessler
(c) Honore de Balzac
(d) Barak Obama
71. Red-Herring prospectus means such prospectus in which
(a) Containing the value of securities
(b) Quantity of securities involved
(c) Not involving the quantity or value of securities
(d) None of the above
72. Which one of the following is NOT an internal source of recruitment?
(a) Rehiring
(b) Employment agencies
(c) Job posting
(d) Succession planning
73. A course of action which is consciously chosen for achieving a desired result, is called
(a) Planning
(c) Organising
(b) Controlling
(d) Decision-making
74. Which one of the following pair is NOT correctly matched?
1. Push strategy of promotion — Quantity Discount
2. Pull strategy of promotion – Economy packs
3. Direct marketing — Catalogue selling
4. Publicity — Impersonal form of promotion
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 2
75. If standard quantity is 40 kg, standard rate is Rs. 2/kg; actual cost is Rs. 90 and actual rate is Rs. 3/kg; then material cost variance will be
(a) Rs. 10 (Adverse)
(b) Rs. 20 (Adverse)
(c) Rs. 20 (Favourable)
(d) Rs. 10 (Favourable) ,
76. The concept of inflationary gap was given by
(a) Wicksell
(b) Keynes
(c) A.W. Philips
(d) Milton Friedman
77. Which of the following is NOT one of the five key criteria to rate the market segment?
(a) Measurable
(b) Actionable
(c) Collectionable
(d) Substantial
78. Rajaram Limited offered 80,000 shares. Applications were received for 1,30,000 shares and pro-rata allotment was made to the applicants. If Mr. ‘X’ applied for 52,000 shares, then how many shares were allotted to him?
(a) 52,000 shares
(c) 13,000 shares
(b) 26,000 shares
(d) 32,000 shares
79. What does ‘P’ represents in the behaviour equation [B = f (P × E)] given by Kart Lewin?
(a) Person
(b) Product
(c) Power
(d) None of these
80. Which of the following factor is relating to technological environment affecting entrepreneurial development?
(a) Family background
(b) Quality of leadership
(c) Trade policy
(d) Better utilization of productive resources
81. Match List – I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below.
List-I (Evolution of HR stages) List-II (Duration)
A. Industrial Revolution and Factory System 1. 1900 – 1935 A.D.
B. Welfare Work and Industrial Psychology 2. 1970 – 1990 A.D.
C. Control of Labour Tradition 3. 1935 – 1970 A.D.
D. Golden Age of Industrial Relations and Personnel Management 4. 1700 – 1900 A.D.
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 3 1 2 4
(c) 3 2 4 1
(d) 4 1 3 2
82. A program that encompasses specific goals, participatively set, for an explicit time period, with feedback on goal progress is called
(a) Management by Exception
(b) Reinforcement Theory
(c) Social-Learning Theory
(d) Management by objectives
83. Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below.
List-I (Relevant Section) List-II (Provision)
A. Section 139 1. Appointment of company auditor
B. Section 141 2. Duties of company auditor
C. Section 142 3. Qualification of company auditor
D. Section 143 4. Remuneration of company auditor
Code:
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 3, D – 4
(b) A – 1, B – 4, C – 2, D – 3
(c) A – 4, B – 2, C – 3, D – 1
(d) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
84. Consider the following statements with reference to Goods and Service Tax (GST).
1. France was the first country where GST was introduced in 1954
2. GST was implemented in India on July 1, 2017
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Only 2
85. Thoughtful action to needs of people for satisfying relationships leads to a comfortable friendly organization atmosphere and work tempo is called
(a) Improvable management
(b) Country club management
(c) Team management
(d) Task management
86. Which one scholars of the following proposed ‘Revealed Performance Theory’ of consumer behaviour?
(a) Adam Smith
(b) Marshall
(c) Samuelson
(d) Recardo
87. Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?
(Category of Correlation) (Range of Positive Degree)
(a) Perfect +1and above
(b) Moderate + .25 to .74
(c) Low 0 to + .24
(d) High + .75to + .99
88. Which one of the following is incorrect in context to Giffen Goods?
(a) The good or product must be typically inferior
(b) The substitution effect is weak and insignificant
(c) The substitution effect is strong and significant
(d) To have a strong negative income effect
89. Consider the following statements with reference to skewness.
1. In a positively skewed distribution, the value of the mean is maximum and that of the mode least – the median lies in between the two.
2. In a negatively skewed distribution, the value of mode is maximum and that of mean least – the median lies in between the two.
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Both 1 and 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Only 2
90. The average marks of 100 students were 40. Later it was discovered that a score of 53 was misread as 83. According to the correct marks, the correct average marks will be
(a) 39
(b) 38
(c) 38.7
(d) 39.7
91. Store and spare parts should be valued at
(a) Cost price
(b) Market price
(c) Cost price or market price whichever is less
(d) Book value
92. A process by which individuals organize and interpret their sensory impressions in order to give meaning to their environment, is called
(a) Personality
(b) Attitude
(c) Learning
(d) Perception
93. According to Herbert Simon, what are the three stages of the decision making process?
(a) Problem, Analysis, Action
(b) Intelligence, Design, Choice
(c) Recognizing, Implementing, Reviewing
(d) Planning, Organizing, Controlling
94. Which one of the following pair is NOT correctly matched with reference to Graphical method of presenting cost-volume-profit analysis?
1. Vertical line — To show cost and sales revenue
2. Horizontal line — To show the profit
3. Fixed cost line — A line parallel to X-axis
4. Total cost line — Draw starting at Y-axis fixed cost point and the line moving to the right considering the total cost
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only 2
95. “Poshak Udyog” in the type of small scale industries means those industries
(a) Those who do casting, electroplating
(b) Those who work in mining
(c) Those who work in construction
(d) Those who deal with food items
96. Which of the following is NOT a use of the Chi-square test?
(a) Test of Goodness of fit
(b) Testing homogeneity of the population
(c) Testing the significance of correlation coefficient
(d) Testing the significance to association between two attributes
97. In which year, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act was enacted?
1. 1991
2. 2004
3. 2006
4. 2014
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Cnly2
98. Which of the following marketing concept was NOT explained by Charles G. Mortimer?
(a) What customer wants, the customer gets
(b) Customer is at the top of the organization chart
(c) Customer is our purpose
(d) We are not the boss, the customer is boss
99. Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order staring from the earliest to the last activity with reference to personal selling.
1. Prospecting
2. Pre-approach
3. Presentation and demonstration
4. Persuasion
5. Closing the sales
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) 2, 1, 4, 3, 5
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
(c) 1, 2, 4, 3, 5
(d) 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
100.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer using the code given below.
List-I (Concept) List-II (Symbol)
A. Type I error 1. α
B. Type II error 2. β
C. Power of Test 3. 1 – α
D. Confidence level 4. 1 – β
Code:
(a) A – 1, B – 3, C – 4, D – 2
(b) A – 3, B – 4, C – 1, D – 2
(c) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 3
(d) A – 2, B – 1, C – 4, D – 3
101. Under the piece work system, a worker’s earnings depend mainly on
(a) Seniority
(b) Number of units produced
(c) Working hours
(d) Skill level
102. Consider the following statements with reference to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs).
1. In Union Budget 2025-26, Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) are considered as 1st engine of development.
2. In Union Budget 2025-26, the investment and turnover limits for classification of all Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMES) to be enhanced to 2.5 and 2 times respectively
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1 and 2
103. As per Section 139(6) of the Companies Act 2013, within how many days from the date of registration the Board of Directors must appoint the First Auditor of a company?
(a) Within 15 days
(b) Within 45 days
(c) Within 60 days
(d) Within 30 days
104. Reorganization of a Existing Company without its dissolution is known as
(a) Amalgamation
(b) Absorption
(c) External reconstruction
(d) Internal reconstruction
105. Consider the following statements with reference to Cost Audit.
1. It is concerned to serve the interests of the management.
2. It is concerned to serve the interests of the shareholders.
Select the correct answer from the code given below
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Both 1and 2
106.Which of the following is NOT workforce diversity?
(a) Gender.
(b) Income
(c) Productivity
(d) Education
107.Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below.
List – I (Items) List – II (Effects)
A. Funds from operation 1. Source of long-term funds
B. Issue of Shares 2. Non-operating use of funds
C. Dividend paid 3. Application of funds
D. Decrease in current assets 4. Sources of funds
Code:
(a) A – 3, B – 1, C – 2, D – 4
(b) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3
(c) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(d) A – 4, B – 2, C – 1, D – 3
108. If current demand of economics books is 10,000 per year for a publishing house. The elasticity of demand is 0.75. The price increase is 50 rupees per book. Calculate the change in the quantity of book demanded if the original price is Rs. 150.
(a) 3000
(b) 2500
(c) 4000
(d) 2000
109. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched?
1. Cross Price Elasticity > 0 – Related Good is a substitute Good
2. Cross Price Elasticity < 0 – Related Good is a complementary Good
3. Income Elasticity < 0 – Good is an inferior good
4. Income Elasticity < 0 – Good is a Giffen good
Select the correct answer from the code given below:
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) Only 4
(d) Only2
110. Match List – I with List – II and choose the correct answer using the code given below the list.
List – I (Theory) List – II (Propounder)
A. Theory of social change 1. J.A. Schumpeter
B. Dynamic Entrepreneurship Innovation Theory 2. Leibenstein
C. X-Efficiency Theory 3. Knight
D. Theory of profit 4. Hagen
Code:
(a) A – 1, B – 2, C – 4, D – 3
(b) A – 4, B – 1, C – 2, D – 3
(c) A – 4, B – 3, C – 2, D – 1
(d) A – 2, B – 4, C – 1, D – 3
111.Skill India Campaign was launched on
(a) 15th July 2015
(b) 15th January 2017
(c) 15th September 2017
(d) 15th August 2016
112 Presenting the product concept to target consumers, physically or symbolically and getting their reactions is called
(a) Concept testing
(b) Market validation
(c) Consumer profiling
(d) Prototype development
113. Consider the following statements with reference to Principles of Accounting.
1. Profits are the best measures by changes in Owner’s equity between an accounting period.
2. Anticipate no profit and provide for all possible losses.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Neither 1 nor2
(d) Both I and 2
114.Match List – I with List – II and select the correct answer from the code given below the list.
List – I (Basis of Classification of Audit) List – II (Types of Audit)
1. Organisational Audit A. Tax Audit
2. Specific Audit B. Annual Audit
3. Timing C. Partial Audit
4. Scope D. Government Audit
Code:
(a) 1 – A, 2 – B, 3 – C, 4 – D
(b) 1 – D, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – C
(c) 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – B, 4 – D
(d) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – D
115. Which of the following is involved in the ‘In Basket Training’?
(a) On Job Training
(b) Simulated training
(c) Learning by doing training
(d) Syndicate training
116. Which one of the following pairs (models of organizational behaviour) is NOT correctly matched?
(a) Autocratic model — Power
(b) Custodial model — Obedience
(c) Collegial model — Team work
(d) Supportive model — Leadership
117. Consider the following steps in the decision- making process and arrange these in correct order starting from earliest to the last.
I. Evaluation of alternative solutions.
II. Development of alternative solutions.
III. Finalization of the criteria to be used for evaluating possible solutions.
IV. Identification of opportunity.
Select the correct answer from the code given below.
Code:
(a) IV, II, I, III
(b) II, III, I, IV
(c) III, I. IV, II
(d) IV, II, III, I
118. Which marketing concept acknowledges that everything matters in Marketing?
(a) The product concept
(b) The Holistic marketing concept
(c) The production concept
(d) The marketing concept
119. According to Graicunas, with n number of subordinates, the formula n (n -1) is used calculate the number of
(a) Direct Single Relationships
(b) Cross Relationships
(c) Total Relationships
(d) Direct Group Relationships
120. “Skill acquisition and knowledge awareness for livelihood promotion” (SANKALP) programme gets loan assistance from
(a) World Bank
(b) International Finance Corporation
(c) Asian Development Bank
(d) International Monetary Fund

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