Syllabus:
The objective type screening test will consist of 120 multiple-choice questions, with each question carrying 1 mark.
i) Subjects (s)/field(s) upto the level of prescribed essential qualification(s) as notified in the advertisement.
ii) (a) General Knowledge including General Knowledge of Himachal Pradesh, Current Affairs.
(b) Everyday Science, Logical Reasoning, Social Science, General English & General Hindi etc. of Matric Standard.
However, the HPRCA may issue a detailed syllabus on its official website in due course of time.
Mode of Selection:
Computer Based Test/ written screening test of 120 marks of 1½ hours (one and a half hours) duration or as decided by the Aayog.
Official Website : Link
PGT Commerce Online Batches
Class Time: 8.00 AM to 9.30 AM ( Monday to Friday)
Batch Duration: 6 Months
Course validity : 1 Year
Commerce Subject Specific Online Fees : Rs. 10,000 to Rs. 15,000 ( Depending on Your Syllabus)
Admission: Open – You may join now
– What we provide to Our Students –
- Live Interactive Classes and
- Recorded video lectures of the same sessions for revision anytime
- Study Material
- Printed Books delivered to your home and
- E-Books available on the app for easy access
- Subject-wise Tests
- Regular tests for each subject to track progress and improve performance
Financial Accounting
- Match the following :
| List-I | List-II |
| (A) Operating Segment | (1) Ind AS-27 |
| (B) Joint Arrangements | (2) Ind AS-114 |
| (C) Regulatory Deferral Accounts | (3) Ind AS-111 |
| (D) Separate Financial Statements | (4) Ind AS-108 |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(b) (4) (3) (2) (1)
(c) (4) (1) (2) (3)
(d) (4) (2) (1) (3)
Corporate Accpunting
2. A company forfeited 700 shares of Rs. 20 each, on which Rs.10 per share were paid. Of these, 200 shares were reissued at Rs. 18 per share. Amount from share forfeited to capital reserve account will be transferred to:
(a) Rs. 1,600
(b) Rs. 400
(c) Rs. 7,000
(d) Rs. 5,000
3. Which of the following is a cash flow from operating activities?
(a) TDS on interest earned on investments made
(b) TDS on interest earned on the advance given to suppier
(c) Dividend paid for the year
(d) Loans and advances given and interest earned to its subimdiary companies
4. Which of the following is not a type of merger ?
(a) Parallel merger
(b) Horizontal merger
(c) Conglomerate merger
(d) Vertical merger
Cost & Management Accpunting
5. Which formula is used to calculate EOQ?
(a) EOQ = √((2 * D * S)/H)
(b) EOQ = √((2 * D * H)/S)
(c) EOQ = (D *S)/H
(d) EOQ = (D *H)/S
- Match the following:
| List-I (Industry) | List-II (Method of Costing) |
| (A) Sugar | (1) Unit Costing |
| (B) Cold Drinks | (2) Job Costing |
| (C) Advertising | (3) Operating Costing |
| (D) Hospital | (4) Process Costing |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(b) (1) (4) (2) (3)
(c) (4) (1) (2) (3)
(d) (4) (2) (1) (3)
- Match the following:
| List-I | List-II |
| (A) Wages paid to factory workers | (1) Administrative overheads |
| (B) Job charges paid for job workers | (2) Direct expenses |
| (C) Salary paid to manager – Finance and Accounts | (3) Operating Costing |
| (D) Hospital | (4) Factory overheads |
Codes:
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(a) (1) (2) (3) (4)
(b) (1) (4) (2) (3)
(c) (4) (1) (2) (3)
(d) (4) (2) (1) (3)
8. Statement (I) : Material Cost of abnormal scrap/defectives should not be included in material cost but treated as loss after deducting the realizable value of such scrap/defectives.
Statement (II) : The material cost of normal scrap/defective which are rejected shall be included in the material cost of excisable goods manufactured
(a) Both the statements are true
(b) Both the statements are false
(c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (II) is true, but statement (I) is false
9. Statement (I): Captive Consumption is the production of goods manufactured by one division or unit and consumed by another division or unit of the same organization or related undertaking for manufacturing another product(s).
Statement (II): Normal Capacity is the production achieved or achievable on an average over a period or season under normal circumstances taking into account the loss of capacity resulting from planned maintenance.
(a) Both the statements are true
(b) Both the statements are false
(c) Statement (I) is true, but statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (II) is true, but statement (I) is false
Advance & Miscellaneous Accounting
10. Subscriptions collected by the society during the year 2022 amount to Rs. 3,700 out of which Rs. 400 represented subscription for the year “2021; 200 were subscriptions collected in advance for the year 2023 and subscription amount to Rs.1,000 were outstanding for recovery at the end of 2022“ The amount to be transferred to Income and Expenditure account at the end of the year 2022 will be :
(a) Rs. 4,100
(b) Rs.3,300
(c) Rs. 4,300
(d) Rs.4,500
Finance & Banking
11. Which institution regulates the money market in India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA)
12. The time period of Treasury Bills (T-Bills) in India in general ranges from:
(a) 14 days to 91 days
(b) 91 days to 1 year
(c) 1 year to 5 years
(d) 5 years to 10 years
13. The term ‘Repo Rate’ refers to the rate at which:
(a) RBI borrows money from commercial banks
(b) Commercial banks borrow money from RBI
(c) Banks lend money to each other
(d) Banks lend money to their customers
14. The term ‘Sensex’ is associated with which stock exchange in India?
(a) Ahmedabad Stock Exchange (ASE)
(b) National Stock Exchange (NSE)
(c) Calcutta Stock Exchange (CSE)
(d) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
15. Which of the following is not a type of capital market instrument in India?
(a) Equity shares
(b) Preference shares
(c) Debentures
(d) Commercial Papers
16. Which regulatory body is responsible for supervising credit rating agencies in India?
(a) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
(d) Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE)
17. What does the term “FII” stands for?
(a) Foreign Industrial Investment
(b) Foreign Institutional Investor
(c) Foreign Investment Institution
(d) Financial Investment Institution
18. What does the term ‘Call Money’ refer to?
(a) Money deposited in a savings account
(b) Money lent by a bank to its customers
(c) Short-term loans between banks and financial institutions
(d) Long-term loans provided by Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
19. What does the term ‘CBLO’ stand for?
(a) Cash-Based Liquidity Option
(b) Commercial Bank Lending Obligation
(c) Collateralized Borrowing and Lending Obligation
(d) Corporate Bond Listing Organization
20. Certificate of Deposit (CD) is a money market instrument issued by :
(a) Corporates
(b) Government
(c) Banks
(d) Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs)
21. What is the primary function of NSDL in the Indian financial system?
(a) Regulating the stock markets
(b) Providing credit rating for companies
(c) Providing depository services for securities
(d) Regulating Non-banking Financial Companies (NBFCs
22. NSDL was established in which year?
(a) 1987
(b) 1994
(c) 1996
(d) 2001
23. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) issues monetary policy statements:
(a) Monthly
(b) Quarterly
(c) Biannually
(d) Annually
24. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established?
(a) 1935
(b) 1947
(c) 1969
(d) 1951
25. Which of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?
(a) Issuing currency notes
(b) Regulating stock markets
(c) Formulating monetary policy
(d) Acting as a banker to the government
26. Who was the First Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) C. D. Deshmukh
(b) Raghuram Rajan
(c) Osborne Smith
(d) Shaktikanta Das
27. What is the full form of CRR in banking terminology?
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio
(b) Current Reserve Ratio
(c) Capital Requirement Regulation
(d) Cash Regulatory Reserve
28. Which of the following is not a type of mutual fund in India?
(a) Equity Funds
(b) Debt Fruids
(c) Balanced Funds
(d) Fixed Deposit Fund
29. Entry Load and Exit Load are associated with:
(a) Mutual Fund Tax Saving Scheme
(b) Mutual Fund Performance
(c) Mutual Fund Risk
(d) Mutual Fund Expenses
30. What is an index fund?
(a) A fund that invests in a single company’s stock
(b) A fund that aims to replicate the performance of a specific market index
(c) A fund that invests in a diverse portfolio of assets
(d) A fund that invest in a specific sector
31. A firm has net operating income i.e. EBIT of Rs. 1,00,000. It has debt of Rs. 5,00,000 @ 8% interest per annum. Assuming Net Income Approach and an equity capitalization rate (ke) of 10%, calculate value of the firm.
(a) Rs.60,00,000
(b) Rs.9,20,000
(c) Rs.6,00,000
(d) Rs.48,00,000
32. Identify the CORRECT statement with relation to future and forward contracts:
(a) There are various organized futures exchanges across the globe.
(b) Cash or shares are required to be deposited by buyers and sellers of forward contracts as margin.
(c) Futures contracts are non-standardized and customizable according to counterparties’ needs; whereas forward contracts are standardized.
(d) Marked-to-market is a process involving re-evaluation of futures contracts at the end of each trading day to determine profits and losses.
33. Value of a levered firm = Value of an unlevered firm + …………………. . Complete the equation.
(a) Interest on debt.
(b) Net operating profit i.e. EBIT.
(c) Value of interest tax shield.
(d) Profit after taxes.
34. Which of the following scenarios best illustrates the concept of “price discovery” in the stock market?
(a) A company’s IPO receives overwhelming demand, resulting in a substantial increase in its stock price on the first day of trading.
(b) A stock experiences sudden price volatility due to rumors about a potential merger with another company.
(c) An investor sells a large block of shares, causing the stock price to decline sharply in a short period.
(d) A regulatory authority introduces new guidelines to enhance transparency in corporate disclosures, leading to increased investor confidence.
35. In the context of stock market operations, which statement accurately reflects the role of a stock exchange in facilitating trading activities?
(a) Stock exchanges primarily serve as intermediaries between buyers and sellers, ensuring fair pricing of securities through centralized trading platforms.
(b) Stock exchanges function solely to promote speculative trading, often resulting in excessive price fluctuations and market instability.
(c) Stock exchanges primarily focus on providing investment advice and recommendations to individual investors, aiming to maximize their returns.
(d) Stock exchanges play a passive role in the market, merely listing securities for trading without actively monitoring market activities or enforcing regulations.
36. When evaluating the methods of trading options, which factor should investors prioritize to mitigate risk effectively?
(a) Opting for European-style options over American-style options to reduce complexity in trading strategies.
(b) Employing hedging techniques such as covered calls or protective puts to limit potential losses.
(c) Leveraging FITs to access diverse funding sources and hedge against currency fluctuations.
(d) Investing in Euro issues rather than ADRs or GDRs to minimize exposure to exchange rate risk.
37. Which of the following best describes a key requirement imposed by SEBI guidelines regarding derivatives trading in India ?
(a) Mandating the use of complex trading strategies to enhance market liquidity and investor participation
(b) Restricting the trading of derivatives to accredited in i tors with high net worth to minimize market volatility
(c) Enforcing stringent margin requirements and position limits to mitigate systemic risks associated with derivatives trading
(d) Allowing derivative issuers to operate without regulatory oversight to encourage innovation and market competitiveness.
38. In the context of screen-based trading, what role do share price indices play, and why are they important?
(a) Share price indices facilitate settlement of trades and determine trading fees for brokers.
(b) Share price indices provide real-time updates on market trends and help investors gauge overall market performance.
(c) Share price indices regulate the listing procedure and accounting records for buying/selling transactions.
(d) Share price indices compile index numbers for interpreting forward transactions and derivative trading.
39. When comparing Internet-based trading with traditional trading methods, which statement best describes a distinguishing feature of Internet-based trading?
(a) Internet-based trading involves physical trading floors and face-to-face transactions with brokers.
(b) Internet-based trading allows for real-time access to market data and instant execution of trades from anywhere with internet connectivity.
(c) Internet-based trading restricts trading activities to specific trading hours and requires manual submission of trade orders.
(d) Internet-based trading relies solely on cash transactions and does not support derivative trading.
Business Management
40. Under the Companies Act, 2013, what is the penalty for non-compliance with the CSR spending requirements by a company?
(a) Fine on company and directors
(b) Imprisonment of directors
(c) Both fine and imprisonment
(d) Suspension of company operations
41. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013,deals with the appointment of a Chief Executive Officer (CEO) or Managing Director (MD) and their role in ensuring good corporate governance?
(a) Section 196
(b) Section 203
(c) Section 210
(d) Section 220
Human Resource Management
42. Identifying the right people in rival companies, offering them better terms and luring them away is popularly called as …………………
(a) Competition
(b) Acquisition
(c) Poaching
(d) None of these
43. “A professor, with a view to play it safe, might give a class grade near the equal to B, regardless of the differences in individual performances”. This is an example of —– bias in Performance Appraisal.
(a) Halo effect
(b) Central Tendency
(c) Horn effect
(d) Stereotyping
44. What are three situational criteria identified in the Fiedler model of leadership?
(a) Job requirements, position power and leadership ability
(b) Charisma, influence and leader-member relations
(c) Leader-member relations, task structure and position power
(d) Task structure, leadership ability and group conflict
- Match the following:
| List-A | List-B |
| (i) Job Analysis | (A) Grading jobs according to scale of pay |
| (ii) Job Description | (B) A statement of human qualities to fill the job |
| (iii) Job Specification | (C) A process of obtaining job facts |
| (iv) Job Classification | (D) A statement of duties and responsibilities of a job |
Codes:
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(a) (C) (D) (B) (A)
(b) (C) (D) (A) (B)
(c) (A) (B) (C) (D)
(d) (B) (C) (D) (A)
46. The “Blind” area in the Johari Window model represents:
(a) Known to self and known to others
(b) Known to self but unknown to others
(c) Unknown to self but known to others
(d) Unknown to self and unknown to others
47. What is the other name for vertical job loading?
(a) Job enrichment
(b) Job enlargement
(c) Job evaluation
(d) None of these
48. According to Kurt Lewin, which of the following is not a stage in change process?
(a) Unfreezing
(b) Restraining
(c) Freezing
(d) Changing
49. If relationship is important to you and you just want to “hide” your dissatisfaction, you may choose this conflict management style:
(a) Accommodating
(b) Withdrawal
(c) Compromising
(d) Collaborating
Marketing Management
50. When conducting a feasibility study for a project, which of the following factors is most crucial in determining project viability under uncertain market conditions?
(a) Market demand analysis based on historical data
(b) Utilization of PERT and CPM techniques for project scheduling
(c) Assessment of financial risks and financing schemes from financial institutions
(d) Implementation of technical analysis for selecting plant and equipment
51. In the context of demand forecasting and market planning, which source of information is considered most reliable for estimating future market trends?
(a) Primary data collected through surveys and interviews with potential customers
(b) Secondary data obtained from industry reports and governnt publications
(c) Technical analysis of production technology and product mix optimization
(d) Financial analysis of project costs and means of financing
52. During project implementation, what is the primary purpose of project review and control?
(a) Evaluation of project feasibility and appraisal criteria
(b) Identification of potential time and cost overruns for corrective action
(c) Market analysis for demand forecasting and market planning adjustments
(d) Assessment of technical analysis outputs for materials and inputs optimization
53. In the context of the marketing mix, what does the “Product” component focus on ?
(a) The cost associated with producing the product
(b) The communication strategies for advertising the product
(c) The distribution channels through which the product is sold
(d) The features, quality, and design of the product
54. Which of the following is a promotional tool used in the marketing mix ?
(a) Price discounts
(b) Direct selling
(c) Product design
(d) Consumer financing options
55. Which of the following categories in the BCG Matrix represents a business unit with high market growth but low market share?
(a) Cash Cows
(b) Dogs
(c) Question Marks
(d) Star
56. Which stage of the buying decision process involves comparing different products, brands or services based on features, prices, and quality ?
(a) Need Recognition
(b) Information Search
(c) Evaluation of Alternatives
(d) Purchase Decisions
57. A retailer wants to optimize its inventory by managing its product line depth without losing customer interest. Which strategy would be most effective?
(a) Concentrating on best-sellers while phasing out low-performing products.
(b) Increasing the variety of products to cover all possible consumer preferences.
(c) Lowering prices across the board to increase the turnover of all stocked items.
(d) Expanding the number of brands offered for a single product category
58. In a market where customers highly value sustainable and ethically produced products, how should a company leveraging the 5C Framework approach pricing for its new line of eco-friendly products?
(a) Price the products lower than conventional alternatives ta quickly penetrate the market.
(b) Set a premium price to reflect the higher value customers place on sustainability and ethical production.
(c) Match the prices of non-eco-friendly competitors to ayeid price wars.
(d) Offer the products at cost to build customer loyalty before prices.
59. A manufacturer of high-end electronic gadgets wants to ensure its products are presented and sold in a way that aligns with its brand image. Which type of intermediary should it prioritize in its distribution channel strategy ?
(a) Online retailers, to ensure widespread availability.
(b) Speciality stores, to provide an environment that matches the product’s premium nature.
(c) Discount retailers, to maximize sales volume.
(d) Direct selling, to eliminate the need for intermediaries.
60. A start-up launching a new fitness app wants to determine the most effective promotion mix. Which target audience characteristic should primarily influence their decision?
(a) The age demographic’s preferred communication channels.
(b) The geographic distribution of potential users.
(c) The income level of the target audience.
(d) The fitness level of the potential users.
61.After launching a new product, a company gathers mixed feedback from various communication channels. What is the most effective way to utilize this feedback for improving customer interaction management?
(a) Focus only on positive feedback to boost marketing effo
(b) Analyze the feedback to identify common issues and prioritize¢ improvements.
(c) Disregard negative feedback that doesn’t align with internal assessments.
(d) Use automated responses to acknowledge feedback without taking further action
62. How does value innovation contribute to the creation of a blue ocean ?
(a) By focusing solely on technological innovation to disrupt ecurrent markets.
(b) By making the competition irrelevant through the simultaneous pursuit of differentiation and low cost.
(c) By prioritizing cost-cutting measures to offer the lowest price products in existing markets.
(d) By incrementally improving products to meet the existing standards of a red ocean market.
63. Which performance appraisal method allows employees to participate in setting their own performance goals?
(a) Graphic rating scale
(b) Behaviorally Anchored Rating Scales (BARS)
(c) Management by Objectives (MBO)
(d) Forced ranking method
64. Which regulatory body in India is responsible for regulating and promoting startups ?
(a) RBI (Reserve Bank of India)
(b) SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
(c) SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
(d) DPIT (Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade)
65. Which Indian startup became the first unicorn to be listed on the Indian stock exchanges ?
(a) Flipkart
(b) Zomato
(c) Ola
(d) Paytm
66. According to Alderfer’s ERG theory, which category of needs includes desires for personal growth and development?
(a) Existence needs
(b) Relatedness needs
(c) Growth needs
(d) Esteem needs
Income Tax
67. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013, mandates the establishment of an independent director’s committee, and what is its primary purpose?
(a) Section 149(2) – Risk Management
(b) Section 178(2) – Nomination and Remuneration
(c) Section 177(4) – Audit Oversight
(d) Section 135(3) – CSR Policy
68. According to Section 50CA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, how is the fair market value of unquoted shares determined for the purpose of computing capital gains on their transfer?
(a) Book value as per the latest audited balance sheet
(b) Net asset value as per the latest audited balance sheet
(c) The value determined by a registered valuer
(d) Average market price on recognized stock exchange
69. Under Section 43CA of the Income Tax Act, 1961, when does the deemed stamp duty value apply for computing income arising from the transfer of immovable property?
(a) When the property is held as stock-in-trade
(b) When the property is gifted to a relative
(c) When the property is inherited
(d) When the property is used for business purposes
70. How does the composition scheme in GST benefit small businesses, and what are the eligibility criteria for opting into this scheme?
(a) It provides a flat-rate tax structure and is applicable to businesses with a turnover up to 1.5 crores.
(b) It exempts small businesses from all taxes and is open to any business size.
(c) It offers tax credits for research and development activities for eligible businesses.
(d) It is exclusive to service-based businesses with an annual turnover of 50 lakhs or less.
71. Examine the role of the Goods and Services Tax Appellate Tribunal (GSTAT) in the resolution of disputes related to GST. Highlight its powers and functions in ensuring fair and impartial decisions.
(a) GSTAT is responsible for tax collection at the state level.
(b) GSTAT is the final appellate authority for GST disputes, ensuring speedy resolution.
(c) GSTAT primarily deals with criminal offenses related to tax evasion.
(d) GSTAT has no jurisdiction over disputes; it is purely an advisory body
72. If an individual taxpayer has undisclosed foreign assets and income, which section of the Income Tax Act, 1961 deals with the taxation and penalty for such undisclosed assets ?
(a) Section 115BBE
(b) Section 139(1)
(c) Section 271AAA
(d) Section 80CCG
73. In the context of international taxation, what is the ‘Equalization Levy’ introduced in the Income Tax Act, 1961 primarily aimed at taxing?
(a) Cross-border capital gains
(b) Digital transactions
(c) Foreign dividend income
(d) Transfer pricing adjustments
74. Mr. John’s minor son, Jacob, has earned interest of Rs. 40,000 on a fixed deposit with ABC Ltd., gifted to him by his grandfather. Given that John’s income surpasses that of Mrs. John, what are the tax implications in this scenario?
(a) Rs. 40,000 shall be taxable in the hands of Jacob
(b) Rs. 40,000 shall be clubbed in the total income of Mrs. John
(c) Rs. 40,000 shall be clubbed in the total income of Mr. John
(d) Rs. 40,000 shall be taxable in the hands of ABC Ltd.
75. Where an asset used for scientific research for more than three years is sold without having been used for other purposes, then the sale proceeds to the extent of the cost of the asset already allowed as deduction under section 35 of Income Tax Act, 1961 in the past shall be treated as:
(a) Business income
(b) Long-term capital gain
(c) Short-term capital gain
(d) Exempted income
Statistics
76. Which of the following is not a property of the Normal distribution?
(a) Mean = median = mode in a normal distribution
(b) Kurtosis = 3 i.e. mesokurtic in a normal distribution
(c) Skewness = 1 in a normal distribution
(d) The normal distribution is a bell-shaped curve
77. Calculate Karl Pearson’s coefficient of correlation based on the given data for a series of paired data:
Covariance between X and Y series = – 8.9
Standard deviation of X series = 6.1
Standard deviation of Y series = 3.9
(a) -0.3741
(b) -0.5690
(c) -0.8900
(d) 0.5690
78. Which of the following statements is CORRECT with relation to simple regression?
(a) The regression model assumes that the error terms ¢ are not normally distributed.
(b) It is assumed that the values of the independent variable are fixed while those of the dependent variable are random with randomness arising from the error term.
(c) Regression coefficients and their product r2 can exceed a numerical value of +1.
(d) The regression lines are positively sloped in case of a negative correlation between the variables.
79. Type II error in hypothesis testing ………..
(a) Can be determined without knowing the true universe value
(b) Represents the level of significance of the test.
(c) Is usually denoted by α and occurs when the null hypothesis is not false but rejected.
(d) Is usually denoted by β and occurs when the null hypothesis is false but not rejected
- Calculate the share price index using the Laspeyre’s method for the following hypothetical data:
| Company | Price (Rs.) | Quantity (Shares) |
| A | 100 | 500 |
| B | 150 | 300 |
| C | 200 | 400 |
| D | 120 | 600 |
(a) 155
(b) 140
(c) 165
(d) 150
Pedagogy
81. Educational psychology is concerned with the study of …………
(a) Philosophy of education
(b) Educational learning
(c) Human learning
(d) Teaching methods
82. ———- believed in a general intelligence factor.
(a) Sternberg
(b) Spearman
(c) Gardner
(d) Thurstone
83. What are the three components of the educational process ?
(a) Education, teacher and books
(b) Teacher, student and education
(c) Teaching, learning and practice
(d) Direction, instruction and skill
84. Which is the first school for a child’s education?
(a) Society
(b) Friends
(c) Family
(d) School
85. The ceremony of initiation of education in Buddhism is called:
(a) Vidyarambam
(b) Upanayanam
(c) Pabajja
(d) Upasampada
86. Schools are basically social institutions as:
(a) They preserve and instill the values of our culture in future generations
(b) They suggest ways and means for social progress
(c) They suggest solutions to social problems
(d) They are established by the society
87. Development of language in children, according to B.F. Skinner, is the result of :
(a) Training in grammar
(b) Imitation and reinforcement
(c) Innate abilities
(d) Maturation
88. Metaphysics’ means:
(a) A branch of Physics
(b) Exploring the nature of ultimate
(c) Reality Physics of metals
(d) Physics of weather
89. What type of candidate should be employed as teacher?
(a) The one, who possess good communication skills with minimum professional qualification
(b) The one, who is good with the content and communication skill
(c) The one, who possesses educational and professional qualifications with higher order
(d) The one, who has requisite educational and professional qualifications and loves the learners
90. Which one of the following policy document was called the ‘Magna Carta’ of Western education system in India ?
(a) Macaulay’s Minute of 1835
(b) Indian Education Commission Report of 1882
(c) Charles Woods Despatch of 1854
(d) Releigh Commission Report of 1902
91…………………. means communication without words.
(a) Object communication
(b) Written communicatio:
(c) Oral communication
(d) Non-verbal communication
92. For a teacher teaching a class with large strength, which of the techniques is best ?
(a) Debate, discussions, practical
(b) Group work with a lecture
(c) Lecture and class notes
(d) Self-study and asking questions
93. ‘Buniyadi Shiksha’ plan is based on ……………… plan.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi’s
(b) Rabindranath Tagore’s
(c) Dr. Radhakrishnan’s
(d) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad’s
94. Which is not the function of NCTE ?
(a) Planning for Teacher Education Institutions in India
(b) Providing grants to the Universities
(c) Coordination with Centre and State Government for Teacher Education issues
(d) Regulating the minimum qualification for teacher educators
95. Teaching is a process …………………………………………
(a) Multi-polar process
(b) Tri-polar-process
(c) Bipolar process
(d) None of these
96. Which of the following Commission first decentralized the primary education?
(a) Kothari ‘Commission
(b) Sadler Commission
(c) Hunter Commission
(d) Mudaliar Commission
97. Exchange of ideas between two or more persons is:
(a) Understanding
(b) Telling
(c) Communication
(d) Speaking
98. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the approLch recommended by NEP 2020 for integrating ICT in education?
(a) ICT should be used as a stand-alone tool for delivering instruction
(b) ICT should be integrated seamlessly into the curriculum and pedagogy
(c) ICT should be primarily used for rote memorization and drill-and-practice exercises
(d) ICT should be employed to replace traditional teaching methods entirely
99. What are OERs ?
(a) Open Educational Resources
(b) Open Examination Resources
(c) Online e-learning Resources
(d) Online Educational Resources
100. Which of the following are the advantages of the distance education system?
(1) Free education for all
(2) Flexible system of education
(3) Encourages earn and learn approach
(4) No regular attendance is required
(5) High and complex method of knowledge acquisition
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (1), (2), (3) only
(b) (2), (3), (4) only
(c) (3), (4), (5) only
(d) (1), (4), (5) only