U G C – NET – Commerce

U G C – NET – Commerce

  • NTA UGC NET JRF Commerce :- Answer Key

    Test No. 4

    Date of Test : 7th April 2018

    1 () 2 () 3 () 4 () 5 () 6 () 7 () 8 () 9 () 10 () 11 () 12 () 13 () 14 () 15 () 16 () 17 () 18 () 19 () 20 () 21 () 22 () 23 () 24 () 25 ()

    26 (b) Normal profit 27 (b)  Equal to variable cost  28 (b)  Shutdown point  29 (a) Large number of buyers and sellers 30 (c) (a), (b), (c), (d), (e) and (f) 31 (a) generally be larger than under simple Monopoly  32 (b) Availability of economies of large scale production.  33 (d) either price or quantity 34 (a) Greater than marginal cost 35 (b) Bilateral monopoly 36 (b) Elastic segment of its demand curve 37 (a) Monopolistic competition  38 (b) sticky prices in the market 39 (c) Product-line pricing   40 (d) i-IV ii-I iii-II iv-III 41 (b) Edgeworth Model 42 (c) co-operation can lead to sub – optimal results 43 (c) Market Structure-Oligopoly No. of firms and degree of product differentiation-Little or no product differentiation and many firms Control over price-Some  44 (d) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a 45 (a)Monopoly Pricing  46 (c) Penetrating pricing  47 (b) i-(b) ii-(c) iii-(d) iv-(a) 48 (a) is part of economic cost  49 (a) Market power  50 (c) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)

    51 ()  52 ()  53 ()  54 ()  55 ()  56 ()  57 () 58 () 59 () 60 () 61 () 62 () 63 () 64 () 65 () 66 () 67 () 68 () 69 () 70 () 71 () 72 () 73 () 74 () 75 () 76 () 77 () 78 () 79 () 80 () 81 () 82 () 83 () 84 () 85 () 86 () 87 () 88 () 89 () 90 () 91 () 92 () 93 () 94 () 95 () 96 () 97 () 98 () 99 () 100 ()

    Test No. 3

    Date of Test : 24th March 2018

    1 () 2 () 3 () 4 () 5 () 6 () 7 () 8 () 9 () 10 () 11 () 12 () 13 () 14 () 15 () 16 () 17 () 18 () 19 () 20 () 21 () 22 () 23 () 24 () 25 ()

    26 (b) Less quantity is supplied at higher prices 27 (b) 70 28 (b) Inelastic  29 (a)  Negative 30 (b) Indifference curves are concave to the origin. 31 (d) Statement I is not correct, but II is correct. 32 (c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect 33 (d)  A-2 B-3 C-4  D-1 34 (c) diseconomies of scope 35 (b) Economic profit is less than the accounting profit 36 (d) 81.42% 37 (b)   A-3   B-1  C-4  D-2 38 (c) Alternative costs 39 (a) Sunk cost 40 (a) Marginal cost is equal to Average cost 41 (d) cost of one product in terms of production of others foregone 42 (b) TC = a + bQ + Q2 43 (b) Backward bending  44 (d) MRS xy is diminishing  45 (d) L-shaped.  46 (a) It is the addition to cost associated with one additional unit of output  47 (c) horizontal  48 (a)  the cost of giving up an alternative 49 (c) Rate of increase is AVC is less than the rate of decrease in AFC  50 (b) (A) is true but (R) is false

    51 ()  52 ()  53 ()  54 ()  55 ()  56 ()  57 () 58 () 59 () 60 () 61 () 62 () 63 () 64 () 65 () 66 () 67 () 68 () 69 () 70 () 71 () 72 () 73 () 74 () 75 () 76 () 77 () 78 () 79 () 80 () 81 () 82 () 83 () 84 () 85 () 86 () 87 () 88 () 89 () 90 () 91 () 92 () 93 () 94 () 95 () 96 () 97 () 98 () 99 () 100 ()

    Test No. 2

    Date of Test : 17th March 2018

    1 (c) Annual white wash of the factory building 2 (d) First statement is not correct but second is correct 3 (a) Capital Expenditure 4 (a) Revenue expenditure (Even though the amount is large) 5 (c) Revenue Expenditure 6 (a) Miscellaneous Expenditure 7 (d) Interest at the rate of 6% is to be allowed on a partner’s loan to the firm 8 (a) 3:1 9 (b) Partner’s capital account 10 (a) 6 : 2 : 2 11 (c) 6 12 (b) Rs. 2,090 and Rs. 2,509 13 (d) Nil 14 (d) Super profit divided with expected rate return 15 (a) Rs. 30,000 16 (b) Rs. 30,000 17 (b) Manufacturing account 18 (b) Rs. 19,500 19 (c) Rs. 23,000 20 (b) Rs. 90,000 21 (b) Rs. 79,000 22 (a) Actual bad debts are not adjusted against the provision for bad debts A/c 23 (b) Current liabilities 24 (b) 40% 25 (b) Sales 26 (b) a-1 b-3 c-2 d-4 27 (a) Utility theory 28 (b) Consumer’s surplus 29 (a) Utility Theory 30 (b) constant marginal utility of money 31 (c) (i), (iii), (v) and (vi) 32 (b) decreases 33 (d) Alfred Marshal 34 (c) equal 35 (c) Paul Samuelson 36 (d) (A) is false but (R) is true 37 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true 38 (c) diminishing returns 39 (c)It is having decreasing costs. 40 (d) All of the above 41 (a) Prices of the two factors 42 (d) a-(i) b-(ii) c-(ii) d-(iii) 43 (c) Statement (I) is correct while statement (II) is incorrect. 44 (b) Concave to the origin 45 (c) Expansion Path 46 (a) Both (A) and (R) are true 47 (d) All of the above conditions are fulfilled 48 ( ) 49 (c) I II IV 50 (a) a-(iv) b-(iii) c-(i) d-(ii) 51 (b) Higher Debt is better 52 (a) Constant 53 (c) Constant 54 (a) VF = VE + VD 55 (c) WACC & kd 56 (c) Irrelevant 57 (c) Traditional Approach 58 (c) VE = VF – VD 59 (d) None of the above 60 (b) Arbitrage Process 61 (d) All of these 62 (b) MM Model 63 (d) Both (a) and (c) 64 (d) None of the above 65 (a) Net Income Approach 66 (c) Under NOT Approach, overall cost of capital remains same 67 (b) Value can be increased by judicious use of leverage 68 (a) Rs. 2,50,000 69 (c) ke is constant 70 (d) Total value does not change because underlying risk does not change with financing mix. 71 (b) Float 72 (b) Increasing Collection 73 (a) Receipt Float 74 (b) Maturity 75 (a) Optimum Cash Balance 76 (a) Rs.3,00,000 77 (b) 2016-17 78 (b) Central and State Government employees and employees of local authorities 79 (c) Rs.6,00,000 80 (b) commission if it is a fixed percentage on turnover 81 (c) Rs.6,66,667 82 (b) 20% 83 (c) average Salary of 10 months immediately preceding the date of retirement. 84 (b) Rs.160 p.m. 85 (b) Rs.1,600 p.m. 86 ( ) 87 (c) Rs.2,000 88 (a) Rs.11,250 89 (b) Rs.1,000 p.m. 90 (d) neither exempt nor taxable in the year of contribution 91 (d) neither exempt nor taxable in the year of accrual. 92 (b) fully exempt 93 (b) 15% of salary or rent paid or payable whichever is lower 94 (b) Below Rs.5,000 95 (b) be a perquisite and the value of such perquisite shall Rs.7,000 96 (a) fully exempt in the hands of shareholders except when it is chargeable to tax under the provisions of section 115BBDA 97 (a) fully exempt in the hands of unit holders 98 (c) flat rate of 30% plus surcharge if applicable plus education cess @ 2% plus SHEC @1% 99 (b) Rs.60,000 100 (a) Fully exempt

    Test No. 1

    Date of Test : 10th March 2018

    1 (a) Going concern, Realisation, Cost 2 (c) Accrual 3 (d) All of the above 4 (d) Not an Expenditure 5 (a) Book keeping 6 (b) Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c 7 (a) Periodicity, Accural, Matching 8 (a) Explanation of meaning and significance of the data in Financial Statements. 9 (b) Conservatism 10 (d) Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account 11 (a) Stewardship accounting 12 (b) Is assumed to be followed 13 (c) Entity 14 (b) Generating revenue 15 (d) Matching 16 (a) Capital 17 (d) All of the above 18 (c) Accounting methods & procedures shall be followed uniform basis year after year 19 (c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases A/c 20 (d) Cash, Premises 21 (c) Money measurement concept 22 (b) After deducting provision for doubtful debts. 23 (c) Out standing rent A/c 24 (d) Purchases A/c 25 (d) Outstanding expenses -current asset. 26 (b) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 27 (c) The good is a substitute 28 (c) The responsiveness of demand to price changes 29 (b) above the mid-point 30 (d) William J. Baumol 31 (c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(iii), (C)-(ii), (D)-(i) 32 (b) If two demand curves are linear and intersecting each other then coefficient of elasticity would be same on different demand curves at the point of intersection. 33 (b) Infinity 34 (b) A rise in the price of inputs. 35 (d) i, ii, iii and iv are true. 36 (d) Delphi method 37 (c) Moving average 38 (a) Business decisions cannot be taken without a sound knowledge of Macro Economic Theories. 39 (a) Both the statements are correct. 40 (c) rectangular hyperbola 41 (c) A-4 B-3 C-1 D-2 42 (a) Both the statements are correct 43 (d) A backward shift in demand for the other commodity 44 (a) upwards 45 (b) less than one 46 (b) Price and quantity of a commodity 47 (b) A normal good. 48 (a) Larger 49 (b) Elasticity of demand is 1 50 (b) Will change total revenue in same direction

  • NTA UGC NET JRF 1st Common Paper:- Answer Key

    Test No. 3

    Date of Test : 7th April 2018

    1 (d) D 2 (d) Z 3 (c)  Surgical Specialists 4 (c) Medical Specialists who are neither Professors nor Surgical Specialists 5 (b) X 6 (b) Thursday 7 (d) Sunday 8 (c) 5 9 (c) Wednesday 10 (b) Wednesday 11 (d) None of these 12 (d) 290 13 (b) 27 14 (a) 9 15 (c) 4 16 (a) Terminal 17 (d) Network 18 (c) Parity bit 19 (a) Network 20 (a) Network 21 (a) Local, wide and Metropolitan 22 (c) Bus 23 (a) Network 24 (b) Hyper link 25 (a) Subject 26 (b) Modem 27 (d) Search engines 28 (c) Spam 29 (a) Hyper text markup language 30 (b) Hyperlink 31 (a) Learning 32 (b) not listening 33 (a) Six 34 (b) Non-verbal communication 35 (a) Dainik Jagran 36 (a, c) 1957 37 (a) International Telecommunication Union 38 (a) space roaming 39 (d) Manoj Kumar 40 (c) audio media 41 (a) 1,2 and 3 42 (d) Governor of the State 43 (b) 2 and 3  44 (b) By a Parliamentary Act 45 (d) Salary of Judges of the Supreme Court is not subject to vote of the legislature.  46 (b) Supreme Court may issue writs for the enforcement of any legal right within the territory of India.  47 (d) President of Indian after consultation with the Chief Justice of India.  48 (c) Practice in the High Court from where he has retired  49 (d)  By the State Assembly  50 (a) Meghalaya

    Test No. 2

    Date of Test : 24th March 2018

     (1) (c) 81 (2)  (a) 88  (3) (c) 35 (4) (d) 36  (5) (b) 24  (6) (c) CLUE (7) (d) VZDQ  (8)  (c) CBMHDS (9)  (a) VIOUER (10) (d) PQJDOVBSJNO   (11) (d) None of these  (12) (a) Grandson (13)  (b) Cousin  (14) (a) Niece  (15) (a) His son (16) (c) Object code (17)  (b) BASIC (18) (b) Problem-oriented languages (19) (C) UNIX  (20) (c) Single user operating system  (21)  (b) .rtf & .odt  (22) (d) Backup file  (23) (d) All of the above (24) (b) Binary system (25)  (a) Assembly languages (26) (d) None of these (27)  (b) Ubuntu (28) (d) Bing   (29)  (b) Operating system (30) (c) Compiler (31) (a) Verbal and non-verbal receiver responses (32) (c) Verbal code (33) (b) Verbal communication  (34) (b) It is controlled by management  (35) (b) Private, organization-wide information network  (36) (c) Audio-visual (37) (a) Same organization  (38) (c) Complete, clear, concrete, correct, concise, courteous, candid (39)  (d) Two-sided verbal (40)  (b) Semantic noise (41) (b) Twice each year with no more than six months between sessions  (42) (c) One-tenth of the membership of the house (43) (b) Speaker of the Lok Sabha  (44) (b) Either directly or through officers subordinate to him in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution (45)  (d) 1 and 2 only (46) (c) Is part of Parliament (47) (a) Chairman of a State Public Service Commission  (48)  (b) President of India (49)  (c) Authorising Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List (50)  (b) 31 members

    Test No. 1

    Date of Test : 17th March 2018

     (1) (B) P (2) (C) U (3) (A) JTK (4) (C) MOQ (5) (A) ADGJ (6) (D) CY (7) (A) 30 km (8) (B) 5 km (9) (D) South (10) (A) South-West (11) (D) West (12) (C) North-west (13) (D) 40 km (14) (C) I & II followed (15) (B) Both 1 and 4 are valid (16) (C) Only 2 follows (17) (B) Only 2 and 3 follows (18) (D) Both 2 and 4 are valid (19) (C) Both 1 and 2 are valid (20) (C) Either I & II followed (21) (C) Addition and substraction (22) (C) Blaise Pascal (23) (A) Universal Automatic Computer (24) (A) Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator (25) (C) First generation (26) (C) Very high speed (27) (A) Personal Digital Assistants (28) (C) CPU (29) (A) Read Only Memory, Programmable Read Only Memory and Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory (30) (A) Monitor (31) (D) 111011 (32) (C) 110101111 (33) (C) 774 (34) (B) 22 (35) (D) 1111101.101 (36) (C) 111011010 (37) (C) 166 (38) (D) 11110001 (39) (C) 76 (40) (D) 0 to 7 (41) (D) Latin word (42) (A) Upward Communication (43) (D) all of these (44) (D) Source, Message, Channel, Receiver (45) (C) Informal communication (46) (D) Language word interpretation (47) (C) Both (A) and (B) (48) (D) Non-verbal communication (49) (C) Interpersonal communication (50) (C) Multiadic communication

  • M.Com Entrance :- Answer Key

    Test No. 3

    Date of Test : 7th April 2018

    1 () 2 () 3 () 4 () 5 () 6 () 7 () 8 () 9 () 10 () 11 () 12 () 13 () 14 () 15 () 16 () 17 () 18 () 19 () 20 () 21 () 22 () 23 () 24 () 25 () 26 () 27 () 28 ()  29 () 30 () 31 () 32 () 33 () 34 () 35 () 36 () 37 () 38 () 39 () 40 () 41 () 42 () 43 ()  44 ()  45 ()

    46 (d) The Companies Act 47 (d) Its members  48 (a) The Company  49 (d) That amount which is stated in the capital clause of the Memorandum of Association as the Share Capital  50 (d) None of the above 51 (d) Rs. 80,000  52 (c) Rs. 5,09,000  53 (c) An invitation to make an offer to subscribe the shares of debentures of the company  54 (b) An offer to take shares made by an applicant  55 (a) 5% of nominal amount of share  56 (d) In lump sum or installments on application & /or allotment &/or call  57 (d) In lump sum or installments on application & / or allotment & / or call 58 (a) A company limited by shares 59 (d) Irredeemable preference shares 60 (d) 20 years 61 (b) Fully paid 62 (d) Divisible profits or proceeds of fresh issues of shares 63 (a) The proceeds of fresh issue of equity shares 64 (c) Capital Reserve arising from revaluation of assets 65 (d) Securities Premium or Divisible profits 66 (d) Capital Redemption Reserve Account 67 (c) Out of divisible profits 68 (b) 75 % of the issue 69 () As old questions paper Rs. 1,200 70 (d) Rs. 400 71 (d) Rs. 600 72 (d) Rs. 600 73 (c) Debited with Rs. 4,000 74 (b) Credited with Rs. 1,000 75 (d) Rs. 1,38,000 76 (a) Rs. 6,000 77 (c) Debited with Rs. 60 78 (a) Rs. 5.00 79 (b) Rs. 10,000 80 (d) 600 shares Rs. 480 81 (d) Rs. 25 82 (d) Writing off the expenses/ discount on the issue of debentures 83 (d) Dividends are usually a fixed amount in every financial year 84 (b) Capital Profits 85 (c) Called up capital of share forfeited; Amount received on share forfeited 86 (d) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) above 87 (b) Securities Premium Account 88 (d) None of these 89 (a) Added to paid up capital 90 (b) Rs. 3,750 91 (a) Cumulative preference shares 92 (c) Nominal Capital 93 (d) Reserves and Surplus 94 (b) Calls-in-arrears 95 (c) Reserves and surplus 96 (c) Date of receipt of advance to the date of appropriation 97 (b) Goodwill 98 (d) Rs. 10,90,000   99 (d) Rs. 1,00,000 100 (c) Rs. 91,000

    Test No. 2

    Date of Test : 25th March 2018

    1 () 2 () 3 () 4 () 5 () 6 () 7 () 8 () 9 () 10 () 11 () 12 () 13 () 14 () 15 () 16 () 17 () 18 () 19 () 20 () 21 () 22 () 23 () 24 () 25 () 26 () 27 () 28 ()  29 () 30 () 31 () 32 () 33 () 34 () 35 () 36 () 37 () 38 () 39 () 40 () 41 () 42 () 43 ()  44 ()  45 ()  46 ()  47 ()  48 ()  49 ()  50 ()

    51 (b)  Zero 52 (d)  53 (a) relative maxima at x = a  54 (c) p  55 (b) Marginal Revenue Product  56 (d) MR = 0  57 (c) Less than 0 58 (a) 59 (b) 8 60 (a) 61 (a) Continuous at x = 1 62 (a) slope of AR = slope of MR 63 (b) sell more in market-I as people are more responsive to changes in price 64 (a) 20 65 (b) elastic 66 (b) increasing and convex from below 67 (b) 2/3 68 (c) – 1 69 (a) 3 70 (b)  71 (b) 6 72 (30625) 73 (c) when denominator is zero 74 (a) 3 75 (b) x = 40 76 (b) Less quantity is supplied at higher prices. 77 (b) 70 78 (b) Inelastic 79 (a) Negative 80 (b) Indifference curves are concave to the origin. 81 (b) Backward bending 82 (d) MRS xy is diminishing 83 (d) L-shaped. 84 (c) Change in Y-Commodity divided by change in X-commodity 85 (b) Less quantity is supplied at higher prices 86 (b) an increase in quantity supplied 87 (b) Negatively sloped 88 (d) Giffen goods  89 (b) Indifference curves slope downward from right to left 90 (a) 40 91 (b) More than unit elastic 92 (c) the inputs are easily available 93 (b) Flow 94 (b) Substitution effect is weaker than income effect 95 (b) the good measured on x-axis is an inferior good 96 (c) U-shaped 97 (b) Convex to the origin 98 (b) Y is an inferior good 99 (a) a higher indifference curve 100 (b) Price

    Test No. 1

    Date of Test : 17th March 2018

    1 (a) Going concern, Realisation, Cost 2 (c) Accrual 3 (d) All of the above 4 (d) Not an Expenditure 5 (a) Book keeping 6 (b) Revenue & transferred to P & L a/c 7 (a) Periodicity, Accural, Matching 8 (a) Explanation of meaning and significance of the data in Financial Statements. 9 (b) Conservatism 10 (d) Rent is a personal account, outstanding rent is nominal account 11 (a) Stewardship accounting 12 (b) Is assumed to be followed 13 (c) Entity 14 (b) Generating revenue 15 (d) Matching 16 (a) Capital 17 (d) All of the above 18 (c) Accounting methods & procedures shall be followed uniform basis year after year 19 (c) Dr Motor Car A/c & Cr Purchases A/c 20 (d) Cash, Premises 21 (c) Money measurement concept 22 (b) After deducting provision for doubtful debts. 23 (c) Out standing rent A/c 24 (d) Purchases A/c 25 (d) Outstanding expenses -current asset. 26 (b) Rs. 1,51,000 27 (a) Purchases A/c  28 (a) Materiality 29 (c) Entity concept 30 (c) Conservatism 31 (c)  Entity concept 32 (b) Historical cost 33 (a) Marketable value 34 (c) Realization 35 (b) 1,00,000 36 (b) Accounting Standards 37 (c) Accountancy 38 (a) Personal 39 (a) Real a/c 40 (c) sales + gross profit = revenue  41 (a) symbolic delivery 42 (b) They have not been followed 43 (a) Personal 44 (b) Real 45 (a) Personal a/c 46 (a) Expenses 47 (a) Cost of goods sold 48 (a) Building A/c 49 (c) Net realizable Value 50 (a)  Outstanding salaries Account 51 (c) Determinant of Leontief matrix > 0 and diagonal elements of the technology matrix < 1 52 (c) Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect 53 (d) 54 (a) A is a square matrix such that |A| = 0 55 (a) |A| = 0 and (adj.A).B = 0 56 (b) – A  57 (a) Only one non-trivial solution  58 (c) Production level of an industry is determined on the basis of certain optimality criteria 59 (c) 80 60 (c) total requirement of each spare part at each of the branch 61 (a) non-negativity constraint 62 (b) has no positive numbers in it 63 (c) equal to zero. 64 (a) Degenerate 65 (b) Dual 66 (c) Feasible solution 67 (a) Slack variable 68 (d) If an optimal solution exists, there will always be at least one at a corner 69 (b) Objective function equation is parallel to one of the constraints 70 (a) The estimated increase in profit when an additional unit of a resource is employed. 71 (Incomplete Question. The correct question is: “A zero Cj – Zj value for a non-basic variable in the simplex table implies:” The Answer = B) 72 (b) Zj   73 (a) Set of interacting points for each of the equation in the problem. 74 (c) Infeasible Solution  75 (b) 76 (c) The good is a substitute 77 (c) The responsiveness of demand to price changes 78 (b) above the mid-point 79 (b) If two demand curves are linear and intersecting each other then coefficient of elasticity would be same on different demand curves at the point of intersection. 80 (b) Infinity 81 (b) A rise in the price of inputs. 82 (c) rectangular hyperbola 83 (d) A backward shift in demand for the other commodity 84 (a) upwards 85 (b) less than one 86 (b) Price and quantity of a commodity 87 (b) A normal good 88 (a) Larger 89 (b) Elasticity of demand is 1 90 (b) Will change total revenue in same direction 91 (b) Change in price 92 (c) Giffen goods 93 (a) The price of Pepsi increased. 94 (b) If demand is price elastic, then decreasing price will increase revenue. 95 (c) The longer the passage of time after a permanent price increase. 96 (b) Infinite 97 (b) Ability to Buy 98 (a) for which demand increases as price decreases 99 (b) An increase in quantity demanded 100 (c) the rate of response of demand to a change in price

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