UGC NET JRF Commerce Questions Paper 2026 January : Total No. of Questions
| S. No. | Subjects | No. of Questions | S. No. | Subjects | No. of Questions |
| 1 | Business Environment & International Business | 11 | 6 | Business Management and Human Resource Management | 8 |
| 2 | Accounting and Auditing | 12 | 7 | Banking & Financial Institutions | 10 |
| 3 | Business Economics | 9 | 8 | Marketing Management | 6 |
| 4 | Business Finance | 8 | 9 | Legal Aspect of Business | 5 |
| 5 | Business Statistics and Research Methods | 11 | 10 | Income Tax Law and Tax Planning | 10 |
| 11 | Passage | 10 | |||
The UGC NET JRF Commerce Question Paper – January 2026 provides a comprehensive collection of multiple-choice questions based on the latest UGC NET Commerce syllabus. The paper includes practice questions, previous year questions, and model test items designed to reflect the current examination pattern. It covers all major units of Commerce such as Accounting, Economics, Management, Finance, Marketing, Banking, and Business Law. This resource helps aspirants analyze the question trend, strengthen conceptual understanding, and enhance their preparation for the UGC NET JRF Commerce examination.
Business Environment & International Business
- Select the correct option from the followings.
The Balance of payment (BOP):
(a) Includes only exports and imports of goods and services.
(b) Is always balanced because every credit entry has a corresponding debit entry.
(c) Excludes unilateral transfers like remittance.
(d) Shows only the financial account of transactions. - Which one of the followings is not a category under Balance of Payments?
(a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Drawings Account
(d) Official Reserve Account - Which statement best captures the difference between FDI and FPI?
(a) EDI is investment with lasting interest and managerial control; FPI is passive investment without control
(b) EDI involves only equity investment; FPI involves both equity and debt security.
(c) FDI is recorded in current account; FPP is recorded in capital account.
(d) Both FDI and FPI give investors voting rights in the host country. - An empirical test was carried out in 1951 on Heckscher Ohlin model to find out whether or not the US, which has abundant capital resources, exports capital intensive goods and imports labour intensive goods. But, it was found that the US exported more labour intensive commodities and imported more capital intensive products, which was contrary to the result of Heckscher – Ohlin model. Who has conducted the test?
(a) Staffan B Linder
(b) David Ricardo
(c) J B Say
(d) Wassily Leontief - Which of the followings is/ate the part of external environment (macro) of Business?
A. Customers
B. Economic factors
C. Natural factors
D. Marketing Intermediaries
E. Competitors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B and D Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) A, B, C and D Only
(d) B, C, D and E Only - Arrange the following institutions as per their year of establishment in ascending order:
A. NAFTA
B. EU
C. ASEAN
D. UNCTAD
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, A, C, E
(c) B, D, C, A
(d) B, C, A, D - India’s participation in SAARC and ASEAN trade pacts primarily reflects which level of Regional Economic Integration?
(a) Customs Union
(b) Free Trade Area
(c) Economic Union
(d) Common Market - Which of the followings is not a core function of WTO?
(a) Providing a forum for trade negotiation
(b) Administering agreement such as GATS, TRIPS and TRIMS
(c) Monitoring trade policies
(d) Providing Concessional loans and financial aid to developing countries - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. EXIM Bank I. Advancing Credit for agriculture and other economic activities rural area B. NHB II. Financing Exports and Imports C. IDBI III. Promoting Housing Finance Institution. D. NABARD IV. Financing, Promoting and Developing industries Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV - A possible cost of FDI to the host country is :
(a) Employment opportunities may increase in the short run but long run competitiveness will be reduced.
(b) Technology transfer always leads to dependency and no local innovation gets encouraged.
(c) Repatriation of profits may lead to capital outflows.
(d) FDI inflows always worsen the host country’s BOP position. - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Heckscher and Ohlin developed a theory to explain the reasons for differences in relative commodity prices and competitive advantages between two nations. According to this theory, a nation will export the commodity whose production requires intensive use of nation’s relatively abundant and cheap factors and import the commodity whose production requires intensive use of the nation’s scarce and expensive factors
Reason (R): Thus, a country with an abundance of cheap labour would import labour intensive products and export capital intensive goods and vice-versa.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Accounting and Auditing
- The Break Even point expressed in amount of sales in rupees of X Ltd having selling Price of Rs. 20 per unit, variable cost of Rs. 14 per unit and fixed cost of Rs. 7,92,000 is :
(a) Rs. 11,28,571
(b) Rs. 1,32,000
(c) Rs. 39,600
(d) Rs. 26,40,000 - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Ind AS 7 I. Impairment of Assets B. Ind AS 24 II. Related Party Disclosures C. Ind AS 36 III. Consolidated Financial Statement D. Ind AS 110 IV. Statement of Cash Flows Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I - Arrange the followings in the correct sequence in which they are computed for determining Net Cash from operating activities as per AS-3 (Revised):
A. Operating profit before Working Capital Changes
B. Cash flow before extra-ordinary items
C. Cash generated from operations
D. Net Profit before taxation and extra ordinary items
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, B, A, C
(c) C, D, B, A
(d) D, A, C, B - Which of the following statements is incorrect for Amalgamation in the nature of merger?
(a) All assets and liabilities of the transferor company taken over by the transferee company
(b) Shareholders of the transferor company need not became equity shareholders of the transferee company
(c) Payment of purchase consideration is made in cash only for fractional shares, if any.
(d) The business of Transferor Company is intended to be carried on, after amalgamation, by the transferee company - Which of the followings are the types of decentralization in an organisation?
A. Profit Centres
B. Service Centres
C. Cost Centres
D. Investment Centres
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, C and D Only
(c) A, B and D Only
(d) B, C and D Only - Which of the following statements are incorrect?
A. Management audit is not compulsory under any law.
B. Vouching is concerned only with items of balance sheet.
C. Section 148 of the Companies Act, 2013 has made Cost Audit mandatory for some Limited companies
D. The object of vouching is to satisfy the auditor as to existence, ownership, possession, completeness, valuation and disclosure of items mentioned in the Balance Sheet.
E. Independent financial audit has been made compulsory for many entities established under respective Acts.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) B, C and E Only
(b) A, B and C Only
(c) B and D Only
(d) A, C and E Only - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Human Resource Valuation Approaches) List – II (Propounders) A. Historical Cost Approach I. Brummet, Flamholiz and Plye B. Opportunity Cost approach II. Hekimian and Jones C. Standard Cost Approach III. David Watson D.Present Value of Future Earning Model IV. Lav and Schwartz Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Making provision for bad and doubtful debts and for discount on debtors I. Cost Concept B. Expenses should be recognised in the period in which associated revenue is recognized II. Going Concern C. Assets are not shown at their current realisable value III. Matching Concept D.Internally generated goodwill is not recorded in the books of accounts IV. Conservatism Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III - A, B and C were partners in a firm sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 4: 3: 2. A died on September 15, 2025. At that time, the capitals of B and C after all the adjustments were Rs. 3,56,000 and Rs. 2,44,000 respectively. B and C decided to adjust their capitals according to their new profit sharing ratio by opening current accounts. The new capital of B is:
(a) Rs. 1,33,333
(b) Rs. 2,00,000
(c) Rs. 2,40,000
(d) Rs. 3,60,000 - Arrange the following steps of Control Process in the correct order:
A. Measurement of Actual Performance
B. Establishment of Standards
C. Corrective action where required
D. Comparison of actual performance with the standards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, C, D
(b) B, A, D, C
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) A, B, D, C - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Minority interest is that part of the net assets of a subsidiary attributable to interest which is held by outsiders.
Reason (R): Minority interest should be presented in the consolidated balance sheet as a part of equity of the parent’s shareholders.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Which of the following types of audit report is issued when the auditor concludes that the financial statements are prepared, in all material respects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework?
(a) Audit report with an ‘emphasis of matter’ paragraph
(b) Qualified report
(c) Disclaimer of opinion report
(d) Unmodified opinion report
Business Economics
- Which of the followings are the properties of Indifference Curve?
A. Indifference curve slopes downward to right
B. Indifference curve is concave to origin
C. Indifference curve is convex to origin
D. Indifference curves cannot intersect each other but can be tangent to each other
E. Higher indifference curve represents higher level of satisfaction
Chose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D and E Only
(b) A, C, D and E Only
(c) A, C and E Only
(d) A, B, C and D Only - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The skimming price policy is adopted where close substitute of a new product are not available.
Reason (R): This policy requires fixing a lower initial price designed to penetrate the market as quickly as possible and is intended to maximize the profit in the long run.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Arrange the following in descending order on the basis of number of sellers in the Market.
A. Duopoly
B. Oligopoly
C. Monopolistic Competition
D. Perfect Competition
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, C, B, A
(b) B, A, C, D
(c) A, B, C, D
(d) B, D, A, C - Suppose a production function is given as
Q = – L3 + 5L2 +10L
Which law of production is revealed by this production function?
(a) Law of diminishing return
(b) Law of increasing return
(c) Law of constant return
(d) Law of return to scale - If demand equation is given by D = 10,000 – P and the supply equation is given by S = 1000 + 4P, the equilibrium price would be
(a) 1600
(b) 1800
(c) 1700
(d) 2000 - What will be the value of AR, if elasticity of demand is unit elastic and the value of MR is 5?
(a) 25
(b) 5
(c) 1
(d) 10 - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Theories of Profit)) List – II(Propounders) A. Risk theory of Profit I. Joseph A Schumpeter B. Dynamic theory of Profit II. F. A. Waker C. Innovation theory of Profit III. F.B. Hawley D. Profit as rent of ability IV. J. B. Clark Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III - Which of the followings is not valid for ordinal school of consumer preferences?
(a) Consumer preferences can be plotted on an indifference curve
(b) Ranking of Utility is important
(c) Magnitude of Utility is important
(d) Utility is not additive - Identify the correct equation of Cobb-Douglas production function:
(a) Q = A + LαKβ
(b) Q = A × LαKβ
(c) Q = A ÷ LαKβ
(d) Q = A – LαKβ
Business Finance
- Arrange the following steps of Capital Budgeting Process in correct order:
A. Preliminary Screening Process
B. Project Generation
C. Detailed Project Evaluation
D. Control of Capital Expenditure
E. Project Selection and its implementation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, A, C, E, D
(c) A, B, C, E, D
(d) B, A, C, D, E - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): New Issue of Capital is costlier than Retained Earnings.
Reason (R): The cost of Retained Earnings is the return foregone by the shareholders on the dividend income.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Operating Leverage I. Contribution / EBT B. Combined Leverage II. Contribution / EBIT C. Earnings Per Share III. EBIT / EBT D. Financial Leverage IV. EAT / No. of Equity Shares Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV - An infinite series of equal cash flow occurring at regular time interval is known as:
(a) An Annuity
(b) An Annuity Due
(c) Perpetuity
(d) Future Value - According to Walter’s Model of Dividend, market value of the share of a declining firm (having r < Ke) will be maximum at
(a) 0% Dividend Payout
(b) 100% Dividend Payout
(c) 50% Dividend Payout
(d) 75% Dividend Payout - Which one of the followings is not an external technique of Foreign Exchange Risk Management?
(a) Forward Contracts
(b) Currency Futures
(c) Netting
(d) Swaps - Which of the followings are the approaches of determining the financing, mix for working capital:
A. Matching Approach
B. Conservative Approach
C. Operating Cycle Approach
D. Aggressive Approach
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D Only
(b) A, B and D Only
(c) A, C and D Only
(d) A, B and C Only - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. NPV I. Which equates the aggregate present value of the net cash Inflows with the aggregate present value of cash outflows. B. IRR II. Dividing the average annual profit after tax by average investment over the life of the project. C. ARR III. Summation of the present values of cash proceeds in each year minus the summation of the present values of the net cash outflow in each year. D. PI IV. Dividing the present value of future cash inflow by the present value of cash outflow Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Business Statistics and Research Methods
- Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Probable Error of Correlation Coefficient I. I.(Explained Variation)/(Total Variation) B. Standard Error of Correlation Coefficient II. II. (Unexplained Variation)/(Total Variation) C. Coefficient of Determination III. D. Coefficient of Alienation IV. o.6745 Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Occurs when a true null hypothesis is rejected I. Type II Error B. Occurs when false null hypothesis does not get rejected II. Type I Error C. Used for data from interval or ratio scales III. Nonparametric Tests D. Used 1o test hypotheses with nominal and ordinal data IV. Parametric Tests Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV - Arrange the following steps of Sampling Design Process in correct order:
A. Determine the sample size
B. Select a sampling technique
C. Selection of sampling frame
D. Target Population definitions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) D, C, B, A
(c) C, D, B, A
(d) B, D, C, A - Which of the following sections of research reports contains Executive Summary?
(a) Prefatory Information
(b) Introductory Information
(c) Main Research Body
(d) Supplementary Information - Karl Pearson’s Coefficient of Skewness for a distribution having mean of 6.82, median of 6.8 and standard Deviation of 1.4 is
(a) 0.014
(b) 0.028
(c) 0.043
(d) 0.056 - If the first quartile is 48 and quartile deviation is 6, the value of median assuming the distribution to be symmetrical is:
(a) 50
(b) 52
(c) 54
(d) 56 - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Filter questions in questionnaire measure the familiarity of the respondents with the topic of research.
Reason (R): Questions that try to capture multiple information at once are referred to as leading questions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Arrange the following steps of research process in correct order:
A. Developing an approach to the problem
B. Problem definition
C. Data Collection, Preparation and analysis
D. Research design formulation
E. Report writing and presentation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, A, D, C, E
(c) D, B, A, E, C
(d) A, B, D, E, C - Which of the following is a measure of relative risk and is calculated by dividing the standard deviation by its expected value?
(a) Variance
(b) Coefficient of Variance
(c) Co-Variance
(d) Geometric Mean - Which of the followings are properties of Normal Distribution?
A. The normal curve approaches the x-axis asymplotically as we proceed in either direction away from the mean.
B The normal curve has its points of inflection at X = ± 2σ
C. Irrespective of the shape, the total area under the normal curve and above the horizontal axis is always equal to 1
D. About 68.27% of the total area under the normal curve is covered from µ – 2σ to µ + 2σ
E. The normal distribution is unimodal
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B and E Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) C, D and E Only
(d) A, C and E Only - The probability that a leap year selected at random contains either 53 Sundays or 53 Mondays is :
(a) 1/7
(b) 2/7
(c) 3/7
(d) 4/7
Business Management and Human Resource Management
- Which one of the followings are not the Objectives of HRM?
(a) Societal Objectives
(b) Organizational Objectives
(c) Functional Objectives
(d) Group Objectives - Which one of the followings is not a type of conflict?
(a) Task Conflict
(b) Relationship Conflict
(c) Process Conflict
(d) Product Conflict - Which one of the followings is not a type of organizational culture?
(a) Non-Entrepreneurial Culture
(b) Power Culture
(c) Role Culture
(d) Task Culture - Arrange the following steps of Selection Process in correct order:
A. Selection Tests
B. Reference and Background Analysis
C. Preliminary Interview
D. Employment Interview
E. Job Offer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) C, A, B, D, E
(c) C, A, D, B, E
(d) A, C, B, D, E - Which one of the followings is not a type of Organisation charts?
(a) Vertical Chart
(b) Circular Chart
(c) Diagonal Chart
(d) Horizontal Chart - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): An effective appraisal system can contribute to competitive advantage by improving employee job performance.
Reason (R): One serious challenge facing the performance appraisal relates to assessment of self-managed teams.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Arrange the following types of motivating needs as identified by Maslow in ascending order
A. Physiological Needs
B. Social Needs
C. Self-actualization Needs
D. Safety Needs
E. Esteem Needs
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, B, C, E
(b) A, D, B, E, C
(c) A, B, D, E, C
(d) A, B, C, D, E - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Managerial Grid I. Charles Bird B. Hawthorne Experiments II. Alderfer C. Trait Theory III. Blake and Mouton D. ERG Theory IV. Elton Mayo Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Banking & Financial Institutions
- Charge collected from the investors by a Mutual Fund Scheme when it sells its units to investors is called:
(a) Exit Load
(b) Entry Load
(c) Switch
(d) Sale Price - Which of the followings are the techniques of Monetary Control adopted by RBI?
A. Loans and Advances to the Industries
B. Cash Reserve Ratio
C. Open Market Operations
D. Statutory Liquidity Ratio
E. Repo Rates
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D Only
(b) A, B, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D, E Only
(d) A, C, D, E, Only - The right of the insurer to stand in the place of insured after the settlement of a claim and it gives the insurer right to recover from an alternative source, the principle involved in this case is called:
(a) Principle of Insurable Interest
(b) Principle of Subrogation
(c) Principle of Causa Proxima
(d) Principle of Contribution - Which one of the followings is not a component of formal (organized) financial system?
(a) Financial Markets
(b) Financial Instruments
(c) Chit-fund Companies
(d) Financial Services - Which one of the followings is not a method of New Issues?
(a) Public Issue through Prospectus
(b) Right Issue
(c) Bonus Issue
(d) Book Building - Process of ensuring access to appropriate financial products and services needed by all sections of the society in general and vulnerable group such as weaker sections and low-income groups in particular at an affordable cost in a fair and transparent manner by mainstream institutional players is referred to as:
(a) Financial Integration
(b) Financial Instability
(c) Financial Inclusion
(d) Monetary Instability - Arrange the following committees as per their year of formation in ascending order:
A. Narsimham Committee – I
B. Padmanabhan Committee
C. Verma Committee
D. Saraf Committee
E. Rashid Jilani Committee
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) A, E, D, B, C
(c) A, E, B, D, C
(d) A, D, E, B, C - Non-receipt of dividend by Investors is categorised in which type of complaints received by the SEBI?
(a) Type I
(b) Type II
(c) Type III
(d) Type IV - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): RTGS system is a funds transfer mechanism where transfer of money takes place from one bank to another on a real time and on gross basis.
Reason (R): There is no minimum ceiling for the RTGS transactions.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. EXIM Bank I. Advancing Credit for agriculture and other economic activities rural area B. NHB II. Financing Exports and Imports C. IDBI III. Promoting Housing Finance Institution. D. NABARD IV. Financing, Promoting and Developing industries Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Marketing Management
- Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): The minimum level of service the customer expects represents the threshold level of expectations.
Reason (R): The gap between the desired and adequate service has been called as the zone of intolerance.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) s not correct but (R) is correct - Arrange the following steps of Personal Selling in sequence:
A. Pre approach
B. Presentation and Demonstration
C. Approach
D. Prospecting and Qualifying
E. Handling Objections
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, C, E, B
(b) A, C, D, E, B
(c) C, A, D, B, E
(d) D, A, C, B, E - Which of the followings are the myths about Rural Market?
A. All Villages are equally populated
B. Rural Consumers are a heterogeneous lot
C. Being illiterate, rural consumer is not able to discriminate between products and brands
D. Only low priced products will sell in rural India
E. Rural markets are the consumer durable markets
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D Only
(b) A, C and D Only
(c) C, D and E Only
(d) B, C, D and E Only - Arrange the following steps of process of consumer buying in proper sequence:
A. Evaluation of Alternatives
B. Search for Alternatives
C. Need Recognitions
D. Decision
E. Development of Decision Criteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, B, A, E, D
(b) C, A, B, E, D
(c) C, E, B, A, D
(d) B, A, C, E, D - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Highest Reach I. Publicity B. Most Persuasive II. Advertising C. Immediate Effect on Sales III. Personal Selling D. No Cost Involved IV. Sales Promotion Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III - Under which of the following, a firm well publicized changes in price and price changes are generally followed by the rival firms. This kind of price leadership may not necessarily come from the largest firm of the industry.
(a) Biometric Price Leadership
(b) Barometric Price Leadership
(c) Price Leadership by low cost firm
(d) Price Leadership by dominant firm
Legal Aspect of Business
- What are the GST rates applicable after 22nd September 2025?
A. 5%
B. 12%
C. 18%
D. 28%
E. 40%
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D Only
(b) B, C, D and E Only
(c) A, C and E Only
(d) B, C and E Only - Arrange the followings on the basis of Sections of Indian Contract Act, 1872 in ascending order:
A. Agreement in restraint of Marriage
B. Agreement made without consideration
C. Agreement with unlawful objects or consideration
D. Agreement in restraint of Trade
E. Agreement by way of wager
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) C, B, A, D, E
(b) C, A, D, B, E
(c) A, B, C, E, D
(d) D, B, A, C, E - Arrange the following Acts in ascending order as per their year of enactment:
A. RTI (Rights to Information Act)
B. Competitions Act
C. Information Technology Act
D. Negotiable Instrument Act
E. Indian Contract Act
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) E, D, C, B, A
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) A, B, E, D, C
(d) E, D, C, A, B - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Doctrine of Caveat Emptor I. Special Contract B. Bailment and Pledge II. Limited Liability Partnership C. Holder in due Course III. Sales of Goods Act D. DPIN IV. Negotiable Instrument Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): A gentlemen died leaving a young widow. The relatives of the deceased threatened the widow to adopt a boy otherwise they would not allow her to remove the dead body of her husband for cremation. The widow adopted the boy.
Reason (R): In The widow subsequently cancelled the adoption. The court held her consent was not free due to coercion.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
Income Tax Law and Tax Planning
- Which of the following statements are correct for tax Evasion?
A. All methods by which tax liability is illegally avoided is termed as tax evasion
B. Tax evasion takes into account loopholes of Law
C. Tax evasion is tax godging within framework of Law
D. Tax evasion has legal sanction
E. Tax evasion is intentional attempt to avoid payment of tax after the liability to tax has arisen
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) B and D Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, E and C Only
(d) A and E Only - For assessment year 2025-26, ‘Health and Education Cess’ shall be levied at the rate of:
(a) 1% on Income Tax
(b) 2% on Income Tax
(c) 3% on Income Tax
(d) 4% on Income Tax - Where a company incurs any expenditure (not being expenditure in the nature of cost of any land or building) on any notified skill development project then such company can claim as deduction under section 35CCD
(a) Only 25% of such expenditure
(b) Only 50% of such expenditure
(c) Only 75% of such expenditure
(d) 100 % of such expenditure - Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
Assertion (A): Section 91 provides for grant of unilateral relief in the case of resident taxpayers on income which has been taxed in India as well as in the country with which there is no Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement.
Reason (R): The relief under section 91 is granted by allowing to the tax payer a deduction from tax liability of an amount equal to the tax calculated at the average Indian rate of tax or the amount of tax calculated at the rate of tax of that other country on the doubly taxed income, whichever is higher.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Arrange the following in ascending order of sections of Income Tax Act related to permissible deduction from Gross Total Income:
A. Deduction in respect of Medical Insurance Premium
B. Deduction in respect of Royalty Income of Author
C. Deduction in respect of Payment of Interest on Loan taken for Higher Education
D. Deduction in respect of Interest on Deposits in Saving Accounts
E. Deduction in respect of Donations to Certain Funds, charitable Institutions, etc.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) E, D, C, B, A
(c) A, C, E, D, B
(d) A, C, E, B, D - Match List – I with List – II
List – I (Tax Deducted at Source) List – II (Sections of Income Tax Act) A. Deduction of Tax at Source on Fees for Professional or Technical Services I. Section 194 A B. Deduction of Tax at Source from Payment of life Insurance Policy II. Section 194B C. Deduction of Tax at Source from Winnings from Lotteries or Crossword Puzzles III. Section 194DA D. Deduction of Tax at Source from Interest other than Interest on Securities IV. Section 194J Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV - A, a resident in India, aged 60 years, earned agricultural income of Rs. 5,00,000 and non-agricultural income of Rs.3,80,000 for assessment year 2025-26. The tax liability of Mr. A assuming that he does not opt to be taxed under the old tax regime is:
(a) Rs. 38,000
(b) Rs. 3,640
(c) Rs. 8,000
(d) Nil - Match List – I with List – II
List – I List – II A. Standard Deduction under Section 16(ia) I. Income under the head Capital Gains B. Standard Deduction under Section 24 II. Income under the head Profits and Gains of Business or Profession C. Depreciation Allowance under Section 32 III. Income under the head Income from House Property D. Exemption under Section 54 for Profit on transfer of house property used for residence IV. Income under the head Salaries Choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - A assessee who declares his business/professional income in accordance with the provisions of Section 44 AD(1)or Section 44 ADA(1) must pay up 100 percent of advance tax payable on or before:
(a) December 15 of the previous year
(b) January 15 of the previous year
(c) February 15 of the previous year
(d) March 15 of the previous year - Arm‘s length price as per section 92 F of the Income Tax Act is the price applied or proposed to be applied when:
(a) Two related persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions.
(b) Two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in controlled conditions.
(c) Two related persons enter into transaction in controlled conditions
(d) Two unrelated persons enter into a transaction in uncontrolled conditions.
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
An application was sent to registrar of companies to obtain the certificate of incorporation on 30 June 2024. One of the promoters, Raj, made the allotment of shares of the company on 28 June 2024. He also made a contract to buy a certain machinery from Pooja by representing himself as an agent of the company on 20 June 2024.
Raj also signed the Memorandum of Association (MOA) of the company on behalf of all seven members to obtain the certificate of incorporation.
Inspite of all these, the certificate of incorporation was issued in respect of ABC Company but wrongly dated as 25 June 2024,
After sometimes, it is also found that two of the members out of seven members named in MOA were minors.
He also entered into a contract after the incorporation of company to buy a building from Prakash for Rs.1,00,00,000 but before obtaining the certificate of commencement of business.
- The certificate of incorporation of ABC is:
(a) Void as it is obtained by forged document
(b) Void as it is obtained by including minor promoters
(c) Valid, even if irregular, cannot be cancelled
(d) Valid, but from 30th June 2024 and not from 25th June - Which of the followings is correct?
(a) Pooja can claim payment of machinery from the company as Raj acted on behalf of the company.
(b) Podja can claim the payment from Raj, who will be personally liable as she is considering that it is a provisional contract.
(c) Raj will be personally liable as for all pre-incorporation contracts, promoters are personally liable
(d) Raj will not be liable as the machinery was used by the company not by Raj for his personal benefits. - The allotment of shares was challenged as it was done before sending the application to the Registrar of Companies. Choose the correct answer
(a) The allotment of shares is void as the certificate of incorporation is not valid
(b) The allotment of shares is valid as it is made after obtaining the certificate of incorporation
(c) The allotment of shares is void as application to obtain certificate was sent on 30th June
(d) The allotment of shares is void as the certificate was obtained by forged document - The contract to buy a building from Prakash for Rs. 1,00,00,000 will be called :
(a) Pre-incorporation Contract
(b) Provisional Contract
(c) Preliminary Contract
(d) Void Contract - The contract made with Pooja on 20 June 2024 will be called:
(a) Pre-incorporation Contract
(b) Provisional Contract
(c) Preliminary Contract
(d) Standard Contract
Comprehension:
Read the following passage and answer the questions:
Ecofresh Pvt. Lid, a startup in India, produces eco-friendly home cleaning products such as liquid detergents, floor cleaners and dishwashing liquids. The company follows a green marketing approach and highlights its products as biodegradable, safe and affordable.
To reach its customers, Ecofresh sells through online Platforms, retail stores and direct sales agents. The firm has designed its marketing mix carefully. Pricing is slightly above competitors due to its ecofriendly positioning but promotions include digital campaigns, social media advertising and discounts on bulk purchases.
Recently Ecofresh launched a new product; a herbal air freshener. During its product life cycle’s introduction stage, the firm invested heavily in promotion and awareness building activities. The company also engages in customer relationship management by offering loyalty points and personalised recommendation to repeat buyers.
- By selling through online platforms, retail stores and direct sales agents, Ecofresh is focusing on:
(a) Pricing Strategies
(b) Promotional Mix
(d) Service Marketing
(d) Multi Channel distribution - Ecofresh use of digital campaigns, social media and discounts reflects decisions related to:
(a) Distribution Mix
(b) Promotion Mix
(c) Product Mix
(d) Pricing Policy - The launch of herbal air freshener during its introduction stage of the product life cycle primarily requires heavy investment in promotion and awareness building activity. It will lead to (in short run):
(a) High Profit
(b) Low/Negative Profit
(c) High Revenue, low cost
(d) High Revenue, High cost - The use of loyalty points is an example of:
(a) Advertising
(b) Sales Promotion
(c) Personal Selling
(d) Sponsorship - Eeofreshs emphasis on biodegradable safe product reflects which marketing approach?
(a) Production approach
(b) Selling approach
(c) Societal marketing approach
(d) Product approach
Answer Key
| 1 (b) | 2 (c) | 3 (a) | 4 (d) | 5 (b) |
| 6 (c) | 7 (b) | 8 (d) | 9 (d) | 10 (c) |
| 11 (c) | 12 (d) | 13 (b) | 14 (d) | 15 (b) |
| 16 (b) | 17 (c) | 18 (a) | 19 (b) | 20 (d) |
| 21 (b) | 22 (c) | 23 (d) | 24 (c) | 25 (c) |
| 26 (a) | 27 (a) | 28 (b) | 29 (a) | 30 (b) |
| 31 (c) | 32 (b) | 33 (b) | 34 (b) | 35 (b) |
| 36 (c) | 37 (b) | 38 (c) | 39 (b) | 40 (c) |
| 41 (d) | 42 (c) | 43 (b) | 44 (a) | 45 (c) |
| 46 (c) | 47 (c) | 48 (b) | 49 (b) | 50 (d) |
| 51 (c) | 52 (d) | 53 (d) | 54 (a) | 55 (c) |
| 56 (c) | 57 (b) | 58 (b) | 59 (b) | 60 (b) |
| 61 (c) | 62 (b) | 63 (c) | 64 (c) | 65 (c) |
| 66 (b) | 67 (b) | 68 (c) | 69 (c) | 70 (c) |
| 71 (d) | 72 (b) | 73 (c) | 74 (c) | 75 (b) |
| 76 (b) | 77 (a) | 78 (a) | 79 (d) | 80 (a) |
| 81 (d) | 82 (d) | 83 (d) | 84 (c) | 85 (c) |
| 86 (b) | 87 (d) | 88 (b) | 89 (d) | 90 (d) |
| 91 (c) | 92 (c) | 93 (b) | 94 (b) | 95 (a) |
| 96 (d) | 97 (b) | 98 (b) | 99 (b) | 100 (c) |
