BHU B.COM Entrance Question Paper 2019 Shift I

BHU B.COM Entrance Question Paper 2019 Shift I

  1. Microsoft power point is a :
    (a) Database program
    (b) Spreadsheet program
    (c) Presentation program
    (d) Word Processing program
  2. What is the intersection of a column and a row on a worksheet called?
    (a) Column
    (b) Value
    (c) Address
    (d) Cell
  3. What type of chart is useful for comparing values over categories?
    (a) Pie chart
    (b) Column Chart
    (c) Line Chart
    (d) Dot Graph
  4. Which function in Excel tells how many numeric entries are there?
    (a) NUM
    (b) COUNT
    (c) SUM
    (d) CHKNUM
  5. Formula in Excel start with:
    (a) #
    (b) %
    (c) =
    (d) +
  6. The cell reference for cell range of A2 to M12 is:
    (a) A2! M12
    (b) A2. M12
    (c) A2; M12
    (d) A2: M12
  7. If x:y = 2:3, then value of 6x+7y:12x+5y is:
    (a) 2:3
    (b) 11:13
    (c) 12:13
    (d) 8:9
  8. The factor of the polynomial (a+b)3 –(a-b)3 is:
    (a) 2b(3a2+b2)
    (b) 2b(a2+3b2)
    (c) 2a(a2+b2)
    (d) 2ab(a2-b2)
  9. If x/a=y/b=z/c, than value of x^3/a^3 -y^3/b^3 +z^3/c^3 is:
    (a) (x+y+z)/(a+b+c)
    (b) (x-y+z)/(a+b+c)
    (c) xyz/abc
    (d) 3xyz/abc
  10. The ages of two persons are in ratio 5:7. 18 years ago their ages were in the ratio 8:13. What are their present ages?
    (a) 45years, 65 years
    (b) 50years, 70 years
    (c) 50years, 60 years
    (d) 45years, 63 years
  11. A man bought a wrist watch for Rs.225 and spend Rs.15 on its repairs. If he sold the same for Rs.300. Then what was his profit percent?
    (a) 30%
    (b) 331/2
    (c) 20%
    (d) 25%
  12. What amount of money should deposite in the bank in order to get Rs. 1,323 in two years at 5% interest compounded annually?
    (a) Rs. 1,000
    (b) Rs. 1,100
    (c) Rs. 1,200
    (d) Rs. 1,250
  13. A chair listed at Rs. 350, is available at successive discounts 25% and 10% The selling price of the chair is:
    (a) Rs. 236.25
    (b) Rs. 240
    (c) Rs. 250
    (d) Rs. 228
  14. Find the value of x in the expression((1-x)(1+x+x^2))/((1+x)(1-x+x^2))=62/63
    (a) 2
    (b) 1/3
    (c) 1/4
    (d) 1/5
  15. A reduction of 12% in the Price of a T.V. set brought down its cost to Rs. 7,678. What was the original price of the set?
    (a) Rs. 8,700
    (b) Rs. 8,725
    (c) Rs. 8,500
    (d) Rs. 8,575
  16. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 100m. If the length of the field is decreased by 2m and its breadth increased by 3m, the area of field is increased by 44m2. Then the dimensions of the field is:
    (a) 30m,20m
    (b) 24m,26m
    (c) 30m,25m
    (d) 32m,18m
  17. A men went to market at a speed of 4km/hr. and returned at 3km/hr If he took 30minutes more in returning, then distance of the market from his home is:
    (a) 4km
    (b) 8km
    (c) 3km
    (d) 6km
  18. A and B together can do a piece of work in 4days but A alone can do it 12 days. How many days would B alone take to do the same piece of work?
    (a) 8days
    (b) 6days
    (c) 14days
    (d) 10days
  19. The age of father is 30 years and age of the son is 8 years . In how many years the age of father will be twice the age of son?
    (a) 12 years
    (b) 24 years
    (c) 28 years
    (d) 14 years
  20. The sum of interior angles of a pentagon is:
    (a) 450degree
    (b) 540degree
    (c) 480degree
    (d) 520 degree
  21. The value of (〖(0.013)〗^3+〖(0.007)〗^3)/(〖(0.013)〗^2-0.013*〖(0.007)〗^2 ) is:
    (a) 0.006
    (b) 0.02
    (c) 0.0091
    (d) 0.00185
  22. In which year Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE) Started trading in securities?
    (a) 1875
    (b) 1880
    (c) 1900
    (d) 1905
  23. In which year securities and Exchange Board of India act was passed?
    (a) 1991
    (b) 1992
    (c) 1993
    (d) 1994
  24. National Stock Exchange (NSE) was incorporated in:
    (a) 1991
    (b) 1992
    (c) 1993
    (d) 1994
  25. The objectives of listing of securities is to provide:
    (a) Liquidity
    (b) Marketability
    (c) Investor protection
    (d) All of the three
  26. Securities are related to primary Market:
    (a) New Issue of shares
    (b) New Issue of Debentures
    (c) New Issue of Bonds
    (d) All of the three
  27. Treasury Bills are issued on behalf of the central Government by:
    (a) Commercial Banks
    (b) Compnay
    (c) Reserve Bank of India
    (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India
  28. Treasury Bills represent short-term borrowing of the:
    (a) Commercial Banks
    (b) Company
    (c) Central Government
    (d) None of the three
  29. Certificate of Deposits are:
    (a) Fully Secured
    (b) Partly Secured
    (c) Unsecured
    (d) None of the three
  30. Certificate of Deposits can be subscribed by:
    (a) Individual
    (b) Trust
    (c) Non-Resident Indians
    (d) All of the three
  31. A commercial paper is issued by the:
    (a) Company
    (b) Commercial Banks
    (c) Reserve Banks of India
    (d) All of the above
  32. Commercial papers were introduced in India from the year:
    (a) 1989
    (b) 1990
    (c) 1991
    (d) 1994
  33. Which one is not a type of Bond?
    (a) Zero Interest Bonds
    (b) Irredeemable Bonds
    (c) Callable Bonds
    (d) Putable Bonds
  34. Debenture stock must be:
    (a) Fully paid
    (b) Partly paid
    (c) Fully and partly paid both
    (d) None of the three
  35. Credit rating in all issues of debentures is:
    (a) Optional
    (b) Compulsory
    (c) Neither optional nor compulsory
    (d) None of the three
  36. Issue of Bond is regulated by:
    (a) SEBI
    (b) RBI
    (c) Company
    (d) None of the three
  37. The Central Bank of India is:
    (a) Reserve Bank of India
    (b) State Bank of India
    (c) Central Bank of India
    (d) Bank of Baroda
  38. State Bank of India came into existence in the Year:
    (a) 1935
    (b) 1943
    (c) 1945
    (d) 1955
  39. Regional Rural Banks are managed by:
    (a) Central Government
    (b) State Government
    (c) State Bank of India
    (d) Board of Directors
  40. Under which of the following methods of note – issue the RBI issues notes:
    (a) Maximum Fiduciary system
    (b) Minimum Reserve system
    (c) Proportional Reserve system
    (d) Fixed Fiduciary system
  41. A Rise in the cash reserve ratio of Bank will lead to:
    (a) Decrease in the money supply
    (b) Increase in the money supply
    (c) Proportionate increase in the money supply
    (d) None of the three
  42. An increase in the bank rate, other things being the same, will lead to:
    (a) Decline in the cost of credit
    (b) Increase in the cost of credit
    (c) Neither decline nor increase in the cost of credit
    (d) None of the three
  43. The issued capital of the Regional Rural Banks was subscribed by:
    (a) Central Government
    (b) State Government
    (c) Sponsored Bank
    (d) All of the three
  44. The main objective of a sound monetary standard is:
    (a) To maintain stability in the currency’s internal value
    (b) To maintain stability in the currency’s external value
    (c) To maintain stability in the currency internal and external value
    (d) None of the three
  45. India left the silver standard in:
    (a) 1790
    (b) 1839
    (c) 1893
    (d) None of the three
  46. Which from the following is not a feature of Gold Currency standard?
    (a) Circulation of Gold coins
    (b) No circulation of Paper money
    (c) Free coinage
    (d) Free import export of gold
  47. Which form the following is not a factor affecting the velocity of circulation of money?
    (a) Quantity of money
    (b) Distribution of Income
    (c) Credit Facilities
    (d) None of the three
  48. Which of the following equation was given by Pigou?
    (a) P=KR/M
    (b) P=MV/T
    (c) P=M/KY
    (d) P=KT/M
  49. Money supply means:
    (a) Currency money
    (b) Total stock of money in circulation at any moment
    (c) Cash balance held by the Government and the banks
    (d) Currency notes in circulation
  50. Exchange Equalisation funds were created under which form of Gods standard?
    (a) Gold Bullion Standard
    (b) Gold Reserve Standard
    (c) Gold Partly standard
    (d) Gold Exchange Standard
  51. Which principle of note issue requires 100% metallic reserve for notes in circulation?
    (a) Elasticity principle
    (b) Banking Principle
    (c) Currency principle
    (d) None of the three
  52. National Income is based on the:
    (a) Total revenue of the state
    (b) Production of goods and services
    (c) Net profit earned and expenditure made by the state
    (d) None of the sum
  53. As the economy develops, the share of the tertiary sector in GDP:
    (a) Increases
    (b) Decreases
    (c) Decreases than increases
    (d) Remains constant
  54. Balance of payment includes:
    (a) Visible Trade
    (b) Invisible Trade
    (c) Debts
    (d) All of the Three
  55. Giffen goods are also called as:
    (a) Superior Goods
    (b) Complimentary Goods
    (c) Inferior Goods
    (d) None of the three
  56. A graph of relationship between the price of a goods and the quantity demanded is called:
    (a) Supply curve
    (b) Demand curve
    (c) Market curve
    (d) None of the three
  57. Which of the following pairs of commodities is an example of ‘Substitute’ ?
    (a) Petrol and car
    (b) Pen and Ink
    (c) Mustard oil and coconut oil
    (d) None of the three
  58. Law of diminishing marginal utility was firstly propounded by:
    (a) Alfred Marshall
    (b) H.H. Gossen
    (c) K.E.Boulding
    (d) A.C.Pigou
  59. According to Marshall, the basis of consumer’s surplus is:
    (a) Law of Diminishing Marginal utility
    (b) Law of Equi-Marginal utility
    (c) Law of Proportions
    (d) None of the three
  60. In the long run a perfect competitive firm earns:
    (a) Normal Profit
    (b) Super profit
    (c) Loss
    (d) All of the three
  61. Essential condition of equilibrium of a monopoly firms is:
    (a) MR=MC
    (b) MC Cuts MR from below
    (c) AR =AC
    (d) MC =MR=AR=AC
  62. A market structure characterized by having only one buyer and one seller of a particular goods or services is known as:
    (a) Bilateral monopoly
    (b) Monopoly
    (c) Oligopoly
    (d) None of the three
  63. The demand curve of a monopolist is:
    (a) Parallel to X-axis.
    (b) Parallel to Y=axis.
    (c) Slopes downwards from left to right
    (d) None of the three
  64. A consumer obtains the maximum satisfaction if he acts according to the law of:
    (a) Consumer’s surplus
    (b) Equi-Marginal utility
    (c) Diminishing Marginal utility
    (d) All of the three
  65. When few number of sellers are found in a market , it is called:
    (a) Oligopoly
    (b) Perfect competiton
    (c) Monopoly
    (d) None of the three
  66. Law of substitution is also known as:
    (a) Law of demand
    (b) Law of Diminishing Utility
    (c) Law of Equi-Marginal Utility
    (d) Law of Marginal Productivity
  67. The main demerit of a sole trading concern is:
    (a) Complicated formation
    (b) Absence of personal element
    (c) Limited Capital
    (d) Excessive Legal Control
  68. Which from the following is not a feature of sole Proprietorship?
    (a) Full control on busniness
    (b) Limited Liability
    (c) Limited capital
    (d) Limited Scope
  69. With reference to staff positions, find out the odd from, the following:
    (a) No authority to get the suggestions implemented
    (b) No responsibility for wrong suggestions
    (c) No accountability for wrong suggestions
    (d) No specialized work
  70. Form the following the most economical form of organization is:
    (a) Line Organization
    (b) Line & Staff Organization
    (c) Functional Organization
    (d) Matrix Organization
  71. ACC is an example of:
    (a) Vertical Combination
    (b) Horizontal Combination
    (c) Circular Combination
    (d) Diagonal Combination
  72. Circular Combination is also called as:
    (a) Services combination
    (b) Mixed combination
    (c) Allied combination
    (d) Vertical combination
  73. In Line and staff Organization the staff is vested with:
    (a) No authority to issue orders
    (b) Full authority to issue orders
    (c) More authority to issue orders than what line has
    (d) Less authority to issue orders than what the line has
  74. The Least democratic form of organization is:
    (a) Line Organization
    (b) Functional Organization
    (c) Line and Staff organization
    (d) Committee organization
  75. Line organization is the most suitable form of organization for which type of the following business units.
    (a) Large Business
    (b) Business units operating over a wider geographical area
    (c) Business units having highly diverse product range
    (d) Small business untis
  76. In partnership, a minor can be partner:
    (a) In no case
    (b) But not more than one
    (c) But only to the benefits of partnership firm
    (d) But only as a secret partner.
  77. As per Companies Act, 2013 , a one person company is a :
    (a) Public Company
    (b) Private Company
    (c) Partnership Company
    (d) Dormant Company
  78. As per the Companies Act, 2013, in general, the maximum time gap specified between two annual general, meetings of a company is:
    (a) Not more than 12 months
    (b) Not more than 16 months
    (c) Not more than 15 months
    (d) Not more than 24 months
  79. When two or more steel manufacturing companies combine it is a cose of :
    (a) Vertical combination
    (b) Horizontal combination
    (c) Lateral Combination
    (d) Diagonal Combination
  80. Pools and Cartel are a form of:
    (a) Partnership
    (b) Union
    (c) Federation
    (d) Amalgamation
  81. Amalgamation is a form of:
    (a) Federation
    (b) Complete Consolidation
    (c) Cartel
    (d) Pool
  82. Which of the following is a method of job evaluation?
    (a) Ranking method
    (b) Observation method
    (c) Record methods
    (d) Participation method
  83. The Indian Trade Union Act was passed in:
    (a) 1901
    (b) 1926
    (c) 1947
    (d) 1956
  84. Name the First Trade Union established in 1920:
    (a) INTUC
    (b) AITUC
    (c) UTUC
    (d) NFTTU
  85. First Industrial Policy of free India was announced in the year:
    (a) 1947
    (b) 1948
    (c) 1951
    (d) 1956
  86. The economics environment of a business includes:
    (a) Industrial policies
    (b) Economic policies
    (c) Economic Condition
    (d) All of the three
  87. Physical Environment includes:
    (a) Natural Resources
    (b) Climate
    (c) Water
    (d) All of the three
  88. In which year did the Industrial Disputes Act came into operation?
    (a) 1947
    (b) 1949
    (c) 1953
    (d) 1963
  89. Which state in India is estimated to have the largest coal reserve?
    (a) Madhya Pradesh
    (b) Uttar Pradesh
    (c) Jharkhand
    (d) Orissa
  90. Which of the following rivers has been declared as ‘national river’ by the Government of India?
    (a) Ganga
    (b) Yamuna
    (c) Brahmputra
    (d) Kaveri
  91. Where is the Forest Research Institute of India Located?
    (a) Delhi
    (b) Dehradun
    (c) Chennai
    (d) Lucknow
  92. The term ‘mixed economy’ denotes:
    (a) Co-existence of rural and urban sectors
    (b) Co-existence of private and public sectors
    (c) Co-existence of heavy and small industries
    (d) Co-existence of developed and under-developed sectors.
  93. Which of the following can be called as a part of the service sector?
    (a) Banking
    (b) Coal mines
    (c) Agriculture
    (d) None of the three
  94. A trade Policy refers to:
    (a) Export-Import Policy
    (b) Foreign Exchange policy
    (c) Licencing Policy
    (d) None of the above
  95. The abbreviation ‘NABARD’ stands for:
    (a) National Bank for Agriculture and Resource Development
    (b) National Bank for Asian Research Development
    (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
    (d) National Bank for Agri Related Development
  96. Economic planning is an essential feature of :
    (a) Capitalist Economy
    (b) Socialist Economy
    (c) Mixed Economy
    (d) None of the three
  97. Which of the following is not covered under GST?
    (a) Readymade Garments
    (b) Natural Gas
    (c) Automobiles
    (d) Air conditioner
  98. Which of the following is not the source of revenue to the central government?
    (a) Income Tax
    (b) Corporate Tax
    (c) Toll Tax
    (d) Central Excise Duty
  99. An Instrument of qualitative credit control in India is:
    (a) Open Market Operations
    (b) Change in Reserve Ratio
    (c) Bank Rate Policy
    (d) Credit Rationing
  100. The headquarter of World Trade Organisation is in:
    (a) New York
    (b) Geneva
    (c) Rome
    (d) Doha
  101. The tax on import and export is known as:
    (a) Income Tax
    (b) Custom Duty
    (c) Trade Tax
    (d) Sales Tax
  102. Which one of the following is not a tool of fiscal policy?
    (a) Interest Rate
    (b) Taxation
    (c) Public Debt
    (d) Public Expenditure
  103. Who Propounded the Monetary theory of the trade cycle?
    (a) M.Friedman
    (b) R.G. Hawtrey
    (c) J.M.Keynes
    (d) J.A.Schumpeter
  104. Fiscal Deficit is:
    (a) Total Expenditure – Total Receipts
    (b) Revenue Expenditure – Revenue Reveipts
    (c) Capital Expenditure – Capital Receipts – Market Borrowings
    (d) Sum of Budget Deficit and Government’s Market Borrowings and Liabilities
  105. Who is the chairman of ‘NITI’ Aayog’’?
    (a) President of India
    (b) Prime Minister
    (c) Finance Minister
    (d) Governor of Reserve Bank of India
  106. A specific statement which specify what must be done or must not be done in a specific situation, is called?
    (a) Strategy
    (b) Procedure
    (c) Rule
    (d) Policies
  107. Which of the following is not a feature of organization?
    (a) Formal Relations
    (b) Informal Relations
    (c) Group of unknown people
    (d) Delegation of Authority
  108. ‘Do or Die, no question of why’ is related with:
    (a) Democratic Direction
    (b) Autocratic Direction
    (c) Free-rein Direction
    (d) None of the three
  109. Form the following which is the best technique of co-ordination:
    (a) Co-ordination by staff meetings
    (b) Co-ordination by leadership
    (c) Co-ordination by Self Co-ordination
    (d) None of the three
  110. The full form of BEP analysis is:
    (a) Break Equal proportion analysis
    (b) Break Equal part Analysis
    (c) Break Even point analysis
    (d) Break Even process analysis
  111. The process of predicting the future situation is called:
    (a) Programme
    (b) Forecasting
    (c) Method
    (d) Scheduling
  112. “Customer is always right” is an example of:
    (a) Policy
    (b) Rule
    (c) Process
    (d) Strategy
  113. “Every subordinate should be given directions by one only one superior’ This principle is known as:
    (a) Principle of unity of direction
    (b) Principle of unity of command
    (c) Principle of span of supervision
    (d) Principle of Scalar chain
  114. Which from the following is not an advantage of line organization:
    (a) Autocratic Nature
    (b) Effective control
    (c) Flexibility
    (d) Strict Discipline
  115. Which of the following statement is not true with reference to committee organization:
    (a) There can never be one man committee.
    (b) There may be a permanent committee.
    (c) There may be an informal committee
    (d) A committee may be re-constitued as per the requirement
  116. Which form the following is not an advantage of successful direction:
    (a) Lesser Absenteeism
    (b) Higher labour Turnover
    (c) Higher self-confidence
    (d) Higher morale
  117. When a plan is formulated before experiencing a problem it is called:
    (a) Proactive plan
    (b) Reactive plan
    (c) Micro Plan
    (d) Formal plan
  118. With reference to line & staff organization which of the following is a ‘Staff position”:
    (a) Officer on special duty
    (b) Personal Secretary
    (c) Personal Assistant
    (d) All of the three
  119. Which of the following in not a part of control?
    (a) Measurement of performance
    (b) Non-setting of standards
    (c) Feedback
    (d) Taking corrective action
  120. After which of the following managerial function, direction is needed?
    (a) Motivation
    (b) Planning
    (c) Staffing
    (d) Organizing
  121. Which one of the following in not true?
    (a) Financial statements are prepared on the basis of accounting principles and conventions.
    (b) Any changes in accounting principles or methods will affect the utility of the financial statements.
    (c) During the period of high inflation, the amounts associated with the items of balance sheet are adjusted to current price level.
    (d) Financial statements record only those transactions which can be expressed in monetary units only.
  122. The comparative financial statements show:
    (a) Absolute figures in rupee
    (b) Increase and decrease in absolute figures
    (c) Absolute data in percentage
    (d) All of the three
  123. Common-size statements are the form of:
    (a) Horizontal analysis
    (b) Vertical analysis
    (c) Dynamic analysis
    (d) Trend analysis
  124. What is Gross Profit Ratio if?
    Total Sales – Rs. 6,00,000
    Sales Return -Rs. 50,000
    Cost of Goods Sold -Rs.4,40,000
    (a) 20%
    (b) 02%
    (c) 25%
    (d) 30%
  125. A low stock turnover ratio indicates:
    (a) Over investment instock
    (b) Solvency position
    (c) Monopoly situation
    (d) None of the three
  126. Long term solvency is indicated by:
    (a) Liquid ratio
    (b) Debt-equity ratio
    (c) Capital-gearing ratio
    (d) Profitability ratio
  127. Collections from books debts:
    (a) Increases current ratio
    (b) Decrease current ratio
    (c) No effect on current ratio
    (d) None of the three
  128. Financial statements are:
    (a) Anticipated facts
    (b) Recorded facts
    (c) Estimated facts
    (d) Analysis facts
  129. Which one higher ratio is not favourable:
    (a) Net Profit Raito
    (b) Stock Turnover Ratio
    (c) Gross Profit Ratio
    (d) Operating Ratio
  130. Cash flow Statement helps in which of financial planning?
    (a) Long term
    (b) Short term
    (c) Medium term
    (d) All of the three
  131. According to AS-3 cash proceeds from issue of share is:
    (a) Operating activity
    (b) Financing activity
    (c) Investing activity
    (d) None of the three
  132. If the net operating profit of the business is Rs. 90,000 and the deptors have decreased during the year by Rs. 40,000. Cash from operations is:
    (a) Rs. 90,000
    (b) Rs. 50,000
    (c) Rs.1,30,0000
    (d) Rs.40,000
  133. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    List I(Item)
    A. Cash paid to suppliers of raw materials
    B. Payment of Dividends
    C. Interest received on investment
    List II
    i. Operating Activity
    ii. Investing Activity
    iii. Financing activity
    codes:
    A B C
    (a) i, iii , ii
    (b) i, ii, iii
    (c) iii, ii, i
    (d) ii, i, iii
  134. Which one of the following statement is false.
    (a) Cash flow statement is based upon cash basis of accounting.
    (b) Cash flow statement is based upon accrual basis of accounting
    (c) Increase in the amount of creditors is a source of cash in cash flow statement
    (d) Increase in the amount of debters results in decrease in cash in cash flow statement.
  135. How sale of equipment Rs. 90,000 (Book Value Rs. 1,00,000) should be shown in the cash flow statement :
    (a) Cash inflow from investing activity Rs. 1,00,000
    (b) Cash used for financing activity Rs. 1,00,000
    (c) Cash inflow from investing activity Rs. 90,000
    (d) Cash inflow from investing activity Rs. 10,000
  136. A transaction relating to sale of assets being entered in sales book.It is an example of:
    (a) Error of Principle
    (b) Error of Omission
    (c) Error of Accounting
    (d) Compensating error
  137. The balance of suspense Account is shown in:
    (a) Trading Account
    (b) Profit and Loss Account
    (c) Balance sheet
    (d) None of the three
  138. Which one of the following statements in false?
    (a) Reserve for Bad Debts is to be made on Debtors.
    (b) Out standing expenses if appears in the trial balance is taken only to the Balance sheet.
    (c) Closing stock if appears in the Trial Balance is not taken to trading Account.
    (d) Valuation of closing stock at the end of the accounting year is done at cost price or the market price which ever is higher.
  139. Provision for depreciation on fixed asset made in profit and loss account of the accounting year will be deducted in the balance sheet:
    (a) From the book value
    (b) From the market value of the asset concerned.
    (c) From the original value of the asset concerned
    (d) From the inflated price of the asset concerned
  140. A Machine is purchased for Rs. 50,000.Depreciatin to be provided annually according to the fixed installment method. The useful life of the machine is 10 years and residual value is Rs. 10,000. What is the rate of depreciation?
    (a) 8%
    (b) 10%
    (c) 12%
    (d) 14%
  141. If preference shares are redeemed at premium, then such premium may be provided out of:
    (a) Share Forfeiture Account
    (b) Share premium Account
    (c) Proceeds of fresh issue of shares
    (d) Capital Redemption Reserve Account
  142. When shares are forfeited, capital account is debited by:
    (a) Forfeited amount
    (b) Called up amount of shares
    (c) Nominal value of shares
    (d) Paid up amount of shares
  143. Premium on issue of shares can be used for:
    (a) Issue of bonus shares
    (b) Distribution of profits
    (c) Transferring to General Reserve
    (d) None of the three
  144. After the debentures are redeemed, the balance in the sinking fund account is transferred to:
    (a) Capital Reserve
    (b) General Reserve
    (c) Profit and Loss Account
    (d) Secret Reserve
  145. Debenture holders are:
    (a) Creditors of the company
    (b) Customers of the company
    (c) Owner of the company
    (d) None of the three
  146. The goodwill brought in by the new partner is withdrawn by old partners in their:
    (a) New Profit Sharing Ratio
    (b) Old Profit sharing Ratio
    (c) Capital Ratio
    (d) Equally
  147. X,Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 1/2: 2/5:1/10. What will be the new ratio of the remaining partners if X retires?
    (a) 2:1
    (b) 4:1
    (c) 5:1
    (d) 3:1
  148. In case of retirement or death of a partner all accumulated profit and losses are transferred in capital account of partners in the :
    (a) New Profit sharing ratio
    (b) Old Profit sharing ratio
    (c) Capital ratio
    (d) None of the three
  149. Bank Balance as per pass book is Rs. 20,000. Divided of Rs. 1,000 collected by bank but entered in the cash book as Rs. 100 The cash book balance is:
    (a) Rs. 20,900
    (b) Rs. 21,000
    (c) Rs.20,000
    (d) Rs.19,100
  150. Bank Reconciliation statement is:
    (a) Ledger Account
    (b) Part of the cash book
    (c) A separate statement
    (d) A sub division of Journal

    Answer Key

    1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (b) 11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (a) 17 (d) 18 (b) 19 (d) 20 (b) 21 (b) 22 (a) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (d) 26 (d) 27 (c) 28 (c) 29 (c) 30 (d) 31 (a) 32 (b) 33 (b) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (a) 37 (a) 38 (d) 39 (d) 40 (b) 41 (a) 42 (b) 43 (d) 44 (c) 45 (c) 46 (b) 47 (d) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (b) 51 (c) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (b) 59 (a) 60 (a) 61 (a) 62 (a) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (c) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (d) 70 (a) 71 (b) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (a) 75 (d) 76 (c) 77 (b) 78 (c) 79 (b) 80 (c) 81 (b) 82 (a) 83 (b) 84 (b) 85 (b) 86 (d) 87 (d) 88 (a) 89 (c) 90 (a) 91 (b) 92 (b) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (c) 96 (b) 97 (b) 98 (c) 99 (d) 100 (b)101 (b) 102 (a) 103 (b) 104 (d) 105 (b) 106 (c) 107 (c) 108 (b) 109 (d) 110 (c) 111 (b) 112 (a) 113 (b) 114 (c) 115 (a) 116 (b) 117 (a) 118 (d) 119 (b) 120 (c)121 (c) 122 (d) 123 (b) 124 (a) 125 (a) 126 (b) 127 (c) 128 (b) 129 (d) 130 (b) 131 (b) 132 (c) 133 (a) 134 (b) 135 (c) 136 (a) 137 (c) 138 (d) 139 (a) 140 (a) 141 (b)142 (b) 143 (a) 144 (b) 145 (a) 146 (b) 147 (b) 148 (b) 149 (d) 150 (c)

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