Module 1 : Business Management ; Managerial Economics & Business Ethics
Part A: Business Management [Unit – I]
10. Authority is the right to make decisions to direct the work of others and to give orders. In this context match Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Line Authority
(B) Staff Authority
(C) Line Manager
(D) Staff Manager
List –II
(i) Gives a manager the right to advice other managers or employees
(ii) Traditionally gives managers the right to issue orders to other managers or employees
(iii) A manager who assists and advises the manager
(iv) A manager who is authorised to direct the work of subordinates is responsible for accomplishing the organisation’s tasks
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (i); (B)- (iv); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (ii)
(b) (A) – (ii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (iii)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (iv)
22. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Goal
(B) Strategy
(C) Mission
(D) Rule
List –II
(i) Basic function or task of an organisation
(ii) End towards which an activity is directed
(iii) Adoption of course of action to achieve long term objectives
(iv) Action or non-actions allowing no discretion
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (i); (B)- (iv); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (iii)
(b) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (iii)
(c) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (iv)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B)- (iii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (ii)
69. According to which of the following approaches of decision making, a manager picks up a course of action that is satisfactory or good enough under the circumstances?
(a) The Behavioural Approach
(b) The Bounded Rationality Approach
(c) The ‘Garbage Can’ Approach
(d) The Cooperative Social Systems Approach
Part B: Managerial Economics [Unit–I]
2. The income or gain expected from the second best use of resources lost due to the best use of the scarce resources is known as
(a) Marginality principle
(b) Opportunity cost
(c) Incremental principle
(d) Equi-marginal principle
28. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(Market structure)
(A) perfect competition
(B) Monopoly
(C) Monopolistic competition
(D) Oligopoly
List –II (Feature)
(i) Product is differentiated
(ii) Homogeneous or differentiated products
(iii) Factors of production are freely mobile between firms
(iv) Legal restrictions on entry of new firms
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (i); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iv); (D) – (iii)
(b) (A) – (iii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (i); (D) – (ii)
(c) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (iii); (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (i); (D) – (iii)
54. Which one of the following is NOT correct for National Income?
(a) Gross National Product (GNP) > Gross National Income (GNI)
(b) Gross Domestic product (GDP) = GNP less Net Income from Abroad
(c) Net National Product (NNP) = GNP less Depreciation
(d) Net Domestic Product (NDP) = NNP less Net Income from Abroad
77. Which one of the following is true for a monopoly firm that operates at the level of output where MR=MC?
(a) If AR>AC, there is abnormal profit for the firm
(b) If AR = AC, there is abnormal profit for the firm
(c) If AR>AC, the firm earns only normal profit
(d) If AR AC, the firm earns only normal profit
92. For which of the following types of goods the demand increases rapidly with the increase in consumer’s income but slows down with further increases in income?
(a) Inferior goods
(b) Essential consumer goods
(c) Normal goods
(d) Luxury and prestige goods
Part C: Business Ethics [Unit–I]
9. The ethical decision ‘Same job, Same Wage’ is used under which criterion ?
(a) Rights
(b) Utilitarianism
(c) Justice
(d) Culture
40. Assertion (A) : Corporate governance is an important instrument of investor protection.
Reason (R) : Strong corporate governance is indispensable to resilient and vibrant capital markets.
Which one of the following options is correct ?
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the right explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not right explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(d) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
Module 2: Organisational Behaviour [Unit–II]
3. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Gate Keeper
(B) Supporter
(C) Consensus tester
(D) Harmonizer
List –II
(i) Encourages silent or shy members to contribute to the discussion
(ii) Explores with the group if all group members agree with the dicision
(iii) Reduces tension in the group, reconciles differences and explores opportunities
(iv) Invites all group members one by one to speak and encourages people to participate
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (ii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (iii)
(b) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (iii)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (ii)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (iii)
4. Organisations encounter many different forces for change which may be external or internal. Which among the following does NOT come under the external forces of change ?
(a) Technological advancement
(b) Workforce diversity
(c) Change in leadership
(d) Competition in the market
6. Match List -I with List -II
List -I (Decision making Bias)
(A) Anchoring Bias
(A) Escalation of commitment
(A) Confirmation Bias
(D) Hindsight
List –II (Explanation)
(i) Represents a case of selective perception
(ii) Refers to our staying with a decision even if there is clear evidence it’s wrong
(iii) Tendency to believe falsely, after the outcome in known
(iv) Tendency to fixate on initial information and fail to adequately adjust for subsequent information
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (iv)
(b) (A) – (iv); (B)- (ii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (iii)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (iii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (ii)
16. Transactional Analysis does NOT help in
(a) Problem solving
(b) Higher social status
(c) Improved communication within the organization
(d) Better leadership
73. The following statement relate to organisational culture :
Statement I : Culture is the cumulative preference of some states of life and osme organized ways of dealing with basic concerns by members of a society.
Statement II : The are various ways of making employees aware about the organization’s culture. These include stories, language, rituals, organizational structure and physical layout and rules and policies.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct, but I is incorrect
(c) Both the Statement I and II are correct
(d) Both the Statement I and II are incorrect
Module 3: Human Resource Management [Unit–II]
1. Match List -I with List -II
List -I (Training Need Assessment Technique)
(A) Observation
(B) Questionnaires
(C) Online technology
(D) Interviews
List –II (Advantages/Merits)
(i) Questions can be modified
(ii) Generates data relevant to work environment
(iii) Inexpensive
(iv) Objective
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (i); (B)- (iii); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (iv)
(b) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iii); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (i)
(c) (A) – (iii); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B)- (iii); (C) – (i) ; (D) – (ii)
12. In which Amendment of the Constitution, the Government of India made a pioneering attempt to provide for ‘workers’ participation in management in industry’, by suitable legislation in the Directive Principles of State Policy?
(a) The Constitution (42 Amendment Act), 1976
(b) The Constitution (41 Amendment Act), 1975
(c) The Constitution (46 Amendment Act), 1977
(d) The Constitution (40 Amendment Act), 1972
17. What refers to the stock of employee skills, knowledge and capabilities that may not show up in a balance sheet but have significant impact on a firm’s performance?
(a) Human Resource Planning
(b) Human Resource Management
(c) Human capital
(d) Number of Employees
24. Today’s new generation knowledge workers and professionals competing for carreer advancement and ready to work longer hours and work almost seven days a week is called
(a) Hard working employees
(b) Bonded labour
(c) Willing slaves
(d) Forced workers
29. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 has provided a machinery for settlement of Industrial disputes. Which amongst the following machinery has NOT been provided under the Act ?
(a) Works Committee
(b) Collective Bargaining
(c) National Tribunal
(d) Voluntary Arbitration
35. Name the theory/concept/thought concerned with designing and shaping jobs to fit the physical abilities and characteristics of individuals so that they can perform their jobs effectively.
(a) Economics
(b) Physiology
(c) Ergonomics
(d) Psychology
50. The technology advancements in the banking sector posed a challenge for the old players in the industry. The public sector banks lagged in modernization because of the traditional and bureaucratic banking norms that were in force. In the face of competition, public sector banks had to hire new talent and keep an open mind about evolving norms as per the market requirements.
Which of the following analysis/methods can help banks to identify jobs and duties of employees as well as what kinds of people to hire for different jobs?
(a) Job evaluation
(b) Work-force Analysis
(c) Job Analysis
(d) Work-load Analysis
71. The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career skills and interests and to use these skills interests most effectively both within the company and after they leave the firm, is known as
(a) Career development
(b) Career planning
(c) Career management
(d) Career counselling
72. Which one amongst the following is NOT social security legislation ?
(a) Employees’ Compensation Act, 1923
(b) Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948
(c) Payment of Wages Act, 1936
(d) Payment of Gratuity Act, 1972
78. The term ‘The War for Talent’ was coined by
(a) McKinsey
(b) T.V.Rao
(c) UdaiPareek
(d) D. Ulrich
79. The system of collective bargaining as a method of settlement of industrial disputes has been adopted and provided under
(a) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
(b) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
(c) The Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Act, 1946
(d) The Taft-Hartley Act, 1947
84. Name the human resource demand (need) forecasting technique, which solicits estimates of personnel needs from a group of experts, usually managers. The HRP experts act as intermediaries, summarise the various responses and report the findings back to the experts. The experts are surveyed again after they receive this feedback. Summaries and surveys are repeated until the experts’ opinions begin to agree. The agreement reached is the forecast of the personnel needs.
Select the correct option :
(a) Ratio-trend Analysis
(b) Regression Analysis
(c) Delphi Technique
(d) Venture Analysis
86. In most of the cases ‘cessation of work’, refusal to continue to work or refusal to accept employment is called strike. Which of the following does NOT come under the form of strike?
(a) Sit-down strike
(b) Hunger strike
(c) Gherao
(d) Work-to-rule
Module 4: Accounting [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
20. AB Ltd. Manufacturers filing cabinets. For the current year, the company expects to sell 4,000 cabinets involving a loss of Rs. 2,00,000. Only 40 percent of the plant’s normal capacity is being utilised during the current year. The fixed costs for the year are Rs. 10,00,000 and fully variable costs are 60 percent of the sales value. What is the break-even point in terms of sales value?
(a) Rs. 25,00,000
(b) Rs. 20,00,000
(c) Rs. 16,66,667
(d) Rs. 30,00,000
27. Cash Flow Analysis is an important financial tool for the management. Its chief advantages are
(i) Helps in cash management
(ii) Helps in external financial management
(iii) Helps in internal financial management
(iv) Discloses the movements of cast
Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv) only
(c) (i) and (iv) only
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
34. Firm A acquirers firm B. Market price of shares of B is Rs 20 per share and EPS is Rs 5. For an exchange ratio of 1.5:1, what was the P/E ratio used in acquiring firm B?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 2.67
36. If actual production of units are lower than the budgeted level of production, which of the following costs would be lower than the budgeted costs?
(a) Variable cost per unit
(b) Total variable cost
(c) Total fixed cost
(d) None of the above
48. The DuPont approach breaks down the earnings power on the shareholder’s book value (RoE) as
(a) Net Profit Margin Total Assets Turnover Multiplier
(b) Total Assets Turnover Gross Profit Margin Debt Ratio
(c) Total Assets Turnover Net Profit Margin
(d) Total Assets Turnover Gross Profit Margin Equity Maltiplier
70. Study the data given below :
Net profit for the year ending 31-12-17
After preference dividend and tax Rs. 1,00,000
No. of Equity shares as on 1-1-2017 50,000
No. of 12% convertible debentures of Rs. 100 each 1,00,000
Each debenture is convertible into 10 equity shares. The tax rate applicable to the company is 30%.
The diluted earning per share will be
(a) Rs. 3.06
(b) Rs. 2.00
(c) Rs. 3.68
(d) Rs. 4.40
95. The money spent for repairs of a motor car used by the business is a
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Deferred Revenue Expenditure
(d) Contingent Expenditure
Module 5: Financial Management [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
11. Which are the asset-related covenants adopted by financial institutions while granting a loan?
(i) Maintenance of working capital position in terms of a minimum current ratio
(ii) Prohibition on disposal of promoters shareholding
(iii) Restriction on creation of further charge on asset
(iv) Ban on sale of fixed assets without the lender’s concurrence
Which one of the following options is most appropriate?
(a) (i), (iii), (iv)
(b) (i), (ii)
(c) (i), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
15. What is the market price per share (face value = Rs. 100) as per Walter model if the profitability rate of the company is 16 percent, payout ratio is 80 percent and the cost of capital is 10 percent ?
(a) Rs. 169.20
(b) Rs. 182.90
(c) Rs. 179.20
(d) Rs. 180.90
25. The following statements relate to Mudra Yojana:
Statement I : Mudra is an NBFC supporting development scheme of micro enterprise sector in the country. It provides refinance support to Bank/MFIs for lending to micro units having loan requirement up to Rs. 10 lakh.
Statement II : Mudra has created different products/schemes for refinancing loans. These interventions have been named ‘Shishu’, ‘Kishore’ and ‘Tarun’ to signify the state of growth/development and funding needs of the beneficiary micro unit/entrepreneur.
Which of the following option is correct ?
(a) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct, but I is incorrect
(c) Both the Statement I and II are correct
(d) Both the Statement I and II are incorrect
56. Which one the following is NOT an integral part of credit policy of a business firm ?
(a) Credit standards
(b) Credit terms
(c) Collection policy
(d) Credit rating
62. A company’s share is currently selling for Rs. 50 and is expecting a dividend of Rs. 3 per share after one year which is expected to grow at 8% indefinitely. What is the equity capitalisation rate ?
(a) 9 percent
(b) 17 percent
(c) 14 percent
(d) 24 percent
63. MM Hypothesis for capital structure is based on which of the following assumptions ?
(i) Investors are rational and have homogeneous expectations
(ii) perfect capital market
(iii) 100% retention of profits
(iv) No taxes
Which of the following options is most appropriate ?
(a) (i), (ii), (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii), (iv)
64. The credit of taking portfolio theory from abstraction to reality goes to
(a) Harry Markowitz
(b) William Sharpe
(c) Jack Trepnor
(d) Eugene Fama
81. Depreciation charged on fixed assets in the Funds Flow Statement is/are
(i) Source of funds
(ii) An application of funds
(iii) Sources of funds in limited sense
(iv) Added back to the operating profit to find out funds from operations
Which one of the following options is correct?
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) only
(c) (iv) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only
82. International Fisher Effect suggests that a home currency will
(a) Appreciate if the current home interest rate exceeds the current foreign interest rate
(b) Depreciate if the current home interest rate exceeds current foreign interest rate
(c) Appreciate if the current home inflation rate exceeds the current foreign inflation rate
(d) Depreciate if the current home inflation rate exceeds the current foreign inflation rate
87. What is the one-month forward price of crude oil trading at $ 70 a barrel when annual interest rate is 6 percent and monthly storage cost amounts to $ 0.60 ?
(a) $ 69.75
(b) $ 70.25
(c) $ 70.95
(d) $ 69.05
88. When prices are rising, the LIFO produces
(a) Highest cost flow and lowest inventory
(b) Lowest cost flow and highest inventory
(c) Highest cost flow andhighest inventory
(d) Lowest cost flowand lowest inventory
89. If risk-free return is 8 percent and the expected return on a market portfolio is 12 percent, the required return on a stock is 15 percent. What is stock beta?
(a) 0.75
(b) (a) 75
(c) 1.25
(d) 2.75
90. A large firm operating over a wide geographical area can speed up its collection by
(a) Concentration banking
(b) Centralised collection
(c) Playing the float
(d) Discretionary payment
Module 6: Strategic Management [Unit–VI]
14. Which of the following approaches was added by Quinn to the Mintzberg’s modes of strategic decision making ?
(a) Entrepreneurial approach
(b) Logical incrementalism approach
(c) Adaptive approach
(d) Planning approach
55. According to BCG matrix, for which one of the following positions of SBU the firm sould decide to curtails losses by divesting ?
(a) Star
(b) Question mark
(c) Cash cow
(d) Dog
58. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Propitious niche
(B) Strategic window
(C) Mission
(D) Business strategy
List –II
(i) It focusses on improving the competitive position within specific industry that the business unit serves
(ii) An extremely favourable market situation so well suited to the firms’s competitive advantage that other organisations are not likely to challenge it
(iii) A unique market opportunity that is available only for a particular time
(iv) It is an objective and measurable common thread to highlight and focus the energy of everyone in the direction that the management believes is the best for the bestChoose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (ii)
(b) (A) – (i); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (iii)
(c) (A) – (iii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (i)
(d) (A) – (ii); (B)- (iii); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (i)
65. A firm’s competitive advantage over its competitor is best described by the
(a) Difference between buyers’ willingness to pay (WTP) and suppliers’ willingness to sell (WTS) is greater than the competitor’s difference between the WTP and WTS
(b) Combined valuation of business more than the individual sum of business
(c) Winner business win more than the loser’s lose
(d) Superiority of the corporate strategy over its business strategy
97. Re-engineering a radical redesign of business process, is an essential and integral to which of the following strategies?
(a) Expansion strategy
(b) Diversification strategy
(c) Growth strategy
(d) Turnaround strategy
Module 7: Marketing Management [Unit-VI]
5. Which out of the following is NOT true about consumer satisfaction ?
(a) Consumer satisfaction is a post consumption phenomenon
(b) Consumer satisfaction is a mild, positive emotional state resulting from a favourable appraisal of a consumption outcome
(c) Consumer satisfaction results from a cognitive appraisal
(d) Consumer satisfaction is not different from consumer loyalty. Both are same concepts
7. The mistake of paying more attention to the specific products of a company offers than to the benefits and experience produced by these products is known as
(a) Marketing phobia
(b) Marketing trivia
(c) Marketing myopia
(d) Marketing inertia
21. Two friends are on WhatsApp discussing a holiday plan. Immediately, Uber pops up within Whats App to help book a ride and provide an estimate. This is known as
(a) Contextual digital marketing
(b) Direct mail marketing
(c) Mail order marketing
(d) Telemarketing
33. The following are two statements with regard to product life cycle (PLC):
Statement I : Product sales pass through distinct stages of PLC, each posing different challenges, opportunities and problem to the seller.
Statement II : A company’s positioning and differentiation strategy must change as its product, market and competitors change over the product life cycle.
Which of the following option is correct ?
(a) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct, but I is incorrect
(c) Both the Statement I and II are correct
(d) Both the Statement I and II are incorrect
39. The following are two statements relate to marketing :
Statement I : ‘For any business enterprise there are two and only two basic functions : marketing and innovation. These two produce results; all the rest are costs.’
Statement II : The product concept of marketing holds that business can be managed by maximisation of production and the resultant lower unit cost and low price.‘.
Which of the following option is correct ?
(a) Statement I is correct, but II is incorrect
(b) Statement II is correct, but I is incorrect
(c) Both the Statement I and II are correct
(d) Both the Statement I and II are incorrect
44. Which one of the following demand forecasting methods is NOT a survey method ?
(a) Delphi method
(b) End use method
(c) Graphical method
(d) Complete enumeration method
47. If Mr. X pays a well a well-known fashion innovator such as Calvin Klein for the right to use its name on his apparel and accessories, then Mr. X is using which type of branding?
(a) Co-branding
(b) Private branding
(c) Manufacturer’s branding
(d) Licensed branding
49. The ratio between customer’s perceived benefits and the resources they use to obtain those benefits is known as
(a) Customer satisfaction
(b) Customer value
(c) Customer retention
(d) Customer loyalty
53. Four distinctive service characteristics greatly affect the design of marketing program for services. The appropriate combination is
(a) Intangibility, inseparability, variability and touchability
(b) Intangibility, inseparability, variability and perishability
(c) Inseparability, variability, perishability and touchability
(d) Variability, perishability, intangibility, and touchability
57. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Product line
(B) Depth of product
(C) Width of product mix
(D) Length of product line
List –II
(i) Total number of items under each product/brand in the line
(ii) Number of products/brands in the line
(iii) Group of closely related products
(iv) Number of product lines
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (iii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iv); (D) – (ii)
(b) (A) – (iii); (B)- (iv); (C) – (ii); (D) – (i)
(c) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (ii); (D) – (iii)
(d) (A) – (ii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iii); (D) – (iv)
60. As a newly appointed marketing manager of a firm, you have been asked to determine if a special Point-of-Purchase (POP) display causes the purchase of the product on display. What type of research design will be needed?
(a) Exploratory
(b) Descriptive
(c) Experimental
(d) Normative
67. Evaluate the statements according to Aaker model of defining brand identity/equity :
Statement I : A particularly important concept for building brand equity is brand identity that represents what the brand stands for and promises to customers.
Statement II : The core identity is most likely to change as the brand travels to new markets and products. Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) Both the Statements are correct
(b) Both the Statements are incorrect
(c) Statement (I) is correct while Statement (II) is incorrect
(d) Statement (I) is incorrect while Statement (II) is correct
91. Fine speciality store falls into
(a) High-mark up, lower volume group
(b) High-mark up, higher volume group
(c) Low-mark up, lower volume group
(d) Low-mark up, higher volume group
93. An airline offering special lounge for waiting is an example of which one of the following differentiations of the service offer?
(a) Differentiation through special constituents
(b) Differentiation through the experience
(c) Differentiation through brand image
(d) Differentiation through pricing
100. Singapore Airlines offer personalised service at airport, excellent service in flight, menu of customer’s choice, personal TV etc. It is an example of
(a) Functional brand
(b) Justified brand
(c) Image brand
(d) Experience brand
Module 8: Statistics for Management & Operations Management
Part A: Statistics for Management [Unit-VIII]
23. Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) The Spearman correlation coefficient is a measure of the association between two interval variables.
(b) The Pearson correlation coefficient is designed to capture the extent of linear association between variables.
(c) In regression analysis, the dependent variable is treated as a fixed variable, while the independent variable is random.
(d) The Pearson correlation coefficient can range from +2.0 to -2.0.
31. The correlation coefficient is the ———————- of two regression coefficients.
(a) Geometric mean
(b) Arithmetic mean
(c) Harmonic mean
(d) Median
42. Respondents of a recent sample survey provided names of friends they thought would be likely users of a new product. These friends were contacted, completed a survey, and asked to supply names of other likely users. Which method of sampling has been used in this survey?
(a) Judgemental
(b) Snowball
(c) Export
(d) Quota
45. Which of the following statistical techniques should be used when you with to examine the association between two nominal variables?
(a) Multiple regression analysis
(b) Simple correlation coefficient
(c) Chi-square contingency test
(d) Pearson correlation coefficient
74. Indicate the correct answer for the combination from the following regarding the conditions for the applicability of a binominal distribution :
(i) There are n independent trials
(ii) Each trial has only two possible outcomes
(iii) The probabilities of two outcomes do not remain constant
(iv) The trials are independent
Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iv)
(d) (ii), (iii), (iv)
80. Exponential distribution comprises which of the following characteristics?
(i) It is discrete distribution
(ii) It is a family of distribution
(iii) It is skewed to the left
(iv) The x values range from zero to infinity
Which one of the following options is most appropriate?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)
83. For a situation where 100 misprints are distributed randomly throughout the 100 pages of a book, the probability that a page selected at random will contain at most one misprint will be
(a) 0.724
(b) 0728
(c) 0.732
(d) 0.736
Part B: Operations Management [Unit-VIII]
13. Read the following regarding PERT and CPM :
(i) PERT is probabilistic in nature and CPM is deterministic in nature.
(ii) PERT is most suitable for new as well as old projects but CPM is of great value for projects that are repetitive.
(iii) PERT focuses primarily on time element and attaches lesser significance to the cost. On the contrary, the CPM puts strong emphasis on cost.
(iv) PERT is activity-oriented and CPM is event-oriented.
Which one of the following options is most appropriate?
(a) (i), and (iv)
(b) (i), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iii)
26. What is the payoff at maturity of a long call below the strike price ?
(a) In the money
(b) Zero
(c) Greater than zero
(d) Out of money
98. Which of the following modules is NOT a part of a typical ERP system?
(a) The Corporate Management (CM) Module
(b) The Asset Management (AM) Module
(c) The Human Resource (HR) Module
(d) The Project System (PS) Module
59. A specific category of information system serving middle managers by providing reports on the organizaton’s current performance is called
(a) MIS
(b) TPS
(c) DSS
(d) ESS
Module 9: International Business & Information Technology
Part A: International Business [Unit–IX]
19. Feasibiltiy analysis is the process of determining if a business idea is viable. It consists of four areas of feasibility analysis. Identify the correct combination.
(a) Product/service feasibility; Industry/target market feasibility; Organizational feasibility; Human resource feasibility
(b) Industry/target market feasibility; Organisational feasibility; Human resource feasibility; Leadership feasibility
(c) Financial feasibility, Product/service feasibility; Industry/target market feasibility; Organizational feasibility
(d) Industry/target market feasibility, Organizational feasibility; Financial feasibility, Leadership feasibility
32. Match List -I with List -II
List -I
(A) Expatriates
(B) Home-country nationals
(C) Third-country nationals
(D) Host-country nationals
List –II
(i) Citizens of the country in which the multinational company has its headquarters
(ii) Non citizens of the countries in which employees are working
(iii) Citizens of a country other than the parent or the host country
(iv) Citizens of a countries in which employees are working
Choose the correct option from those given below :
(a) (A) – (ii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (iii)
(b) (A) – (ii); (B)- (i); (C) – (iii) ; (D) – (iv)
(c) (A) – (i); (B)- (ii); (C) – (iv) ; (D) – (iii)
(d) (A) – (iv); (B)- (i); (C) – (ii) ; (D) – (iii)
37. Entering a foreign market by developing foreign-based assembly or manufacturing facilities is known as
(a) Exporting
(b) Licensing
(c) Joint ownership
(d) Direct investment
38. Balassa Index is often use as a tool to measure the
(a) Relative trade performance of individual countries in particular commodities
(b) Comparative cost advantage of nations
(c) Product life cycle for different commodities
(d) National competitive advantage
43. Which of the following institutions prepares and publishes FDI confidence index annually?
(a) UNCTAD
(b) WTO
(c) A.T. Kearney
(d) MSCI
51. Which one of the following institution is responsible for the execution of the India’s import-export policies?
(a) Chief Controller of Imports and Exports
(b) Federation of Indian Export Organisations
(c) Export Promotion Councils and Commodity Boards
(d) Direct General of Foreign Trade (DGFT)
75. India’s Trade Policy, 2015-20 stipulates to raise India’s share in world exports to –
(a) 5.0 percent
(b) 2.5 percent
(c) 3.5 percent
(d) 4.5 percent
76. Which of the following institution is known as the ‘soft loan window’ of the World Bank?
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) International Development Agency
(c) International Finance Corporation
(d) Asian Development Bank
96. Which one of the following involves selling at a loss to gain access to a market and perhaps to drive competition?
(a) Persistent dumping
(b) Predatory dumping
(c) Reverse dumping
(d) Sporadic dumping
99. John Dunning argued that FDI us attracted because of unique advantage of
(a) Firms seeking to establish a dominant market presence
(b) Product life cycle advantages
(c) Ownership, location and internalisation
(d) Market imperfection
Part B: Information Technology [Unit-IX]
52. Linux is the most well-known and widely used
(a) Open source operating system
(b) Java platform
(c) Communication software
(d) System software
85. Data scrubbing is :
(a) A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary indexes.
(b) A process to load the datain the data warehouse and to create the necessary indices.
(c) A process to upgrade the quality of databefore it is moved into a data warehouse.
(d) A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse.
Module 10: Entrepreneurship Development [Unit–X]
8. Which of the following were two major criteria for the first official definition of small scale industry coined, in the year 1950?
(a) The size of gross investment in fixed assets and the strength of the work force
(b) The size of gross investment in fixed assets and the annual turnover
(c) The strength of the workforce and the annual turnover
(d) The annual turnover and the annual profit
18. NITI Aayog, GOI, has launched a scheme to develop ecosystem for women entrepreneurship in India. Identify the scheme out of the following :
(a) Women empowerment Agency
(b) Women Entrepreneurship Platform
(c) Naari Shakti Aayog
(d) Women Knowledge Center
30. The scheme, which has been launched by the MSME Ministry to access the capabilities and creditworthiness of the micro and small enterprises (MSEs), is called :
(a) performance and credit rating scheme
(b) Zero defect zero effect certification
(c) Performance and economic rating scheme
(d) Technology upgradation scheme
41. The cooperative bank came into existence with the enactment of the Co-operative Credit Societies Act, 191(b) Which among the following does not come under the structure of co-operative bank?
(a) State Co-operative Bank
(b) Land Development Bank
(c) Regional Rural Bank
(d) Primary Agricultural Credit Societies
46. Which among the following is a correct statement ?
(a) Entrepreneur is as employee and intrapreneur is free and the leader of the operations.
(b) Intrapreneur is an employee and entrepreneur is free and the leader of the operation.
(c) Entrepreneurship is the change initiative taken within a going concern by the people working in the organisation.
(d) Intrapreneurship is the change initiative taken by a group of independent people.
61. Statement I : All ideas are opportunities.
Statement II : An opportunity is an idea that has the qualities of being attractive, durable and timely.
Which of the following options is correct ?
(a) Both the Statements are correct
(b) Both the Statements are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct while II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect while Statement II is correct
66. Which national institute has set up/established a ‘Centre for Research in Entrepreneurship Education and Development (DREED)’ with the objective to broaden the frontier of entrepreneurship research?
(a) Indian Institute of Management, Ahmedabad
(b) Entrepreneurship Development Institute of India
(c) Delhi University
(d) Institute of Rural Management Anand
68. Which of the following invalidates informal persuasions to boycott China imported goods?
(a) Plurilateral agreement
(b) Protection through tariffication
(c) National treatment rule
(d) Most favoured nation principle
94. Which out of the following is the principal financial institution for the promotion, financing and development of industries in the small scale sector and to coordinate the functions of other institutions engaged in similar activities?
(a) Infrastructure Development Finance Company Limited
(b) Industrial Finance Corporation of India limited
(c) Industrial Development Bank of India
(d) Small Industries Development Bank of India