Maharastra Set 2016 May Commerce – III

  1. Cost of intangible fixed assets are______over their useful lives.
    (a) Depreciated
    (b) Amortised
    (c) Charged
    (d) Allocated
  2. Consider the following statements with the help of alternatives given below:
    Secret reserve serve the purpose of:
    (1) Enabling the directors to tide over unfavorable items.
    (2) Meeting exceptional losses.
    (3) Increasing the working capital.
    Which of the following statements are correct.
    (a) 1 and 2 are correct
    (b) 2 and 3 are correct
    (c) 1 and 3 are correct
    (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. Which one of the following accounting equation if correct?
    (a) Assets = Owner’s equity
    (b) Assets = Liabilities + Owner’s equity
    (c) Assets = Liabilities – Owner’s equity
    (d) Assets + Liabilities = Owner’s equity
  4. Financial instruments are useful for:
    (a) Creating benefits for Govt.
    (b) Providing credit creation for Banks
    (c) Mobilization of savings
    (d) For creating direct securities
  5. The first attempt to value human beings in monetary term was made by:
    (a) William Petty
    (b) William C.Pyle
    (c) Shultz
    (d) Morese
  6. Consider the following statement with the help of alternatives given below:
    (1) Professional management
    (2) Diversification of risk
    (3) Steady appreciation
    (4) Lower cost of operation
    Which of there statements are correct?
    (a) 1,2,3 and 4
    (b) 1,2 and 4
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3 and 4
  7. The price specified in the option contract which means the underlying asset to be purchased or sold by the buyer/holder is known as:
    (a) Strike price
    (b) Exercise price
    (c) Stock exchange price
    (d) Cost price
  8. An investor with a low risk preference should be advise to invest in:
    (a) Turn around stocks and aim at short-term gains
    (b) Emerging blue chips and aim at medium-term gains
    (c) Speculative stocks and aim at short-term gains
    (d) Super stocks and aim at long-term gains
  9. The department under which the manager has control over revenuer,expenses and the amount invested in asset centres is known as_______.
    (a) Profit centre
    (b) Cost centre
    (c) Investment centre
    (d) Revenue centre
  10. Lease financing is:
    (a) A sale of goods to the lessee
    (b) It is a hire of goods on rent
    (c) It is a transfer of ownership
    (d) It is a financing partnership between lessor and lessee
  11. Two companies,X Ltd. and Y Ltd. go into liquidation to form a new company,Z Ltd. It is a case of:
    (a) Absorption
    (b) External reconstructions
    (c) Amalgamation
    (d) Demerger
  12. A Certificate of deposit is a:
    (a) Fixed deposit in a bank
    (b) Short-term negotiable instruments in bearer form
    (c) A promissory note to pay a sum of money to the issuer
    (d) It is a government treasury bill
  13. Floating rate bonds:
    (a) The bonds are issued in small parts of the total bond
    (b) These bonds are ‘American Depository Receipt’
    (c) These bonds are also called ‘Drop Lock Bonds’
    (d) These bonds are also called ‘floating rate notes’
  14. The process of managing the sales ledger of a client by a financial service company is called:
    (a) Forfeiting
    (b) Factoring
    (c) Leasing
    (d) Securitisation of debt
  15. Interest rate risk:
    (a) Is also referred to as inflation risk
    (b) Is affected by changes in social attitudes
    (c) Is affected by changes in lending cycle
    (d) Is affected by changes in the business cycle
  16. Which is not a primary buying motive?
    (a) Food and Drink
    (b) Comfort
    (c) Attraction of opposite sex
    (d) Lifestyle
  17. Which of the following is not a marketing factor?
    (a) Consumer market
    (b) Area of market
    (c) Durability
    (d) No. of customers
  18. The term social marketing refers to__________.
    (a) New product development and sales for society
    (b) A philosophy that emphasizes on customer value and satisfaction
    (c) A Philosophy that stresses on customer delightment in society
    (d) A Philosophy that emphasizes on customer satisfaction and welfare of the society at large
  19. Which of the following is not macro-marketing environment?
    (a) Economic
    (b) Social and Culture
    (c) Customers
    (d) Technological
  20. ______is the concept of marketing that holds consumer will prefer those products that offer the most quality or performance.
    (a) Product concept
    (b) Production concept
    (c) Selling concept
    (d) Consumer-oriented concept
  21. Which of the techniques is not included in marketing control?
    (a) ABC Analysis
    (b) Marketing Audit
    (c) Sales Analysis
    (d) Market share Analysis
  22. What does green marketing imply?
    (a) It implies marketing of only green colored products
    (b) It implies marketing of safe and eco-friendly products
    (c) It implies complete ban on chemical products
    (d) It implies punishing factory owners
  23. Which ‘P’ is more sensitive in marketing?
    (a) Product
    (b) Price
    (c) Promotion
    (d) Place
  24. When any company of one country desires to capture the market of another country on some reasonable and political terms, it is termed as________.
    (a) Multiplex Marketing
    (b) Mega-Marketing
    (c) Re-Marketing
    (d) Mini-Marketing
  25. Psycho-analytic theory was introduced by___________.
    (a) T. Vebler
    (b) S.Freud
    (c) Festinger
    (d) P.Kotler
  26. Which of the following is marketing research method?
    (a) Observation
    (b) Questionnaire
    (c) Interview
    (d) Schedule
  27. Which of the following is right kind of label of a product?
    (a) Sales label
    (b) Purchase label
    (c) Competitor’s label
    (d) Brand label
  28. Which statement is not true?
    (a) Cyber marketing and E marketing are the same
    (b) E-marketing is one of the options of direct marketing
    (c) E-marketing is applicable to services only
    (d) E-marketing offers high convenience reliability and speed
  29. What is market environment?
    (a) Micro-environment
    (b) Macro-environment
    (c) Cultural environment
    (d) Micro-and Macro-environment
  30. Which of the following is not method of selling price?
    (a) Marginal cost pricing method
    (b) Cost plus pricing method
    (c) Break-even pricing method
    (d) First-in-First-out pricing method
  31. T-group training is also called as:
    (a) Management development
    (b) Employment empowerment
    (c) Sensitivity training
    (d) Team building
  32. Graphic-Rating scale is a method of:
    (a) Performance Appraisal
    (b) Wage Payment
    (c) Participative management
    (d) Training
  33. Joint management Council is a form of_______.
    (a) Industrial Relation
    (b) Trade union
    (c) Worker’s Participation in management
    (d) Negotiation
  34. To calculate the no. of workers required for various jobs with reference to a planned output is called:
    (a) Workload Analysis
    (b) Workforce Analysis
    (c) Job Analysis
    (d) Prediction
  35. Finding out the abilities or skills of employees required to do a job efficiently is called:
    (a) Job description
    (b) Job specification
    (c) Job analysis
    (d) Job evaluation
  36. Which function is not included in staffing?
    (a) Transfer
    (b) Recruitment
    (c) Induction and Orientation
    (d) Organisation,Planning and Development
  37. In the factories Act no. of workers is permitted to work for more than____hours in a day.
    (a) 10
    (b) 8
    (c) 24
    (d) 9
  38. Which among the following allowances is paid to employees in order to enable them to meet the increasing price of essential commodities?
    (a) Bonus
    (b) Rent allowance
    (c) Increment in salary
    (d) Dearness allowance
  39. Remuneration to blue collar workers is called________.
    (a) Wage
    (b) Salary
    (c) Compensation
    (d) Payment
  40. The minimum wage rate could be subject to revision of intervals not exceeding______.
    (a) 2 years
    (b) 4 years
    (c) 5 years
    (d) 10 years
  41. In incentive payment plan a worker’s pay is determined by_________.
    (a) Management
    (b) Performance
    (c) Seniority
    (d) Profits
  42. In a model grievance procedure,the supervisor has to respond against the grievance within____.
    (a) 2 days
    (b) 3 days
    (c) 5 days
    (d) 7 days
  43. 360 degree feedback involves appraisals by:
    (a) Subordinates
    (b) Line manager
    (c) Superiors
    (d) Any one who is directly in contact with appraiser
  44. Which among the following methods is latest method of performance appraisal?
    (a) Confidential report
    (b) Essay evaluation
    (c) Critical incident techniques
    (d) 360 degree and assessment centre
  45. The payment of Gratuity Act was passed in______.
    (a) 1948
    (b) 1961
    (c) 1972
    (d) 1965
  46. _________are also known as Transnational Corporations (TNCs).
    (a) Joint ventures
    (b) Foreign Institutions
    (c) Multinational Corporations(MNCs)
    (d) Global firm
  47. _________is not the agreement of World trade Organisation(W.T.O.).
    (a) Agreement on Agriculture
    (b) Agreement on TRIPS
    (c) TRIMS
    (d) Agreement on Industry
  48. American Depository Receipts(ADR) are denominated in____________.
    (a) U.S. Dollar
    (b) Francs
    (c) Lira
    (d) Euro
  49. ______is for those instruments which are synthetic financial products derived from the real assets or stocks or commodities.
    (a) Spot market
    (b) Derivative market
    (c) Future market
    (d) Forward market
  50. _______is not the condition under future contracts.
    (a) Delivery is necessary
    (b) Price is known in advance
    (c) The risk is borne both by buyers and sellers
    (d) payment is made on the spot
  51. ________is a joint collaboration in the field of manufacturing, processing and marketing by two or more countries.
    (a) Joint venture
    (b) MNCs
    (c) Mergers and Acquisitions
    (d) Foreign Technical Collaborations
  52. FIIs must initially registered with________on the basis of their registration with the regulatory organisation for the stock market in their country of incorporation
    (a) RBI
    (b) SEBI
    (c) Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB)
    (d) Controller of Capital Investment (CCI)
  53. The NAFTA commenced operations from_____.
    (a) January 1994
    (b) November 194
    (c) 1990
    (d) June 1997
  54. The ASEAN includes Brunies,Indonesia,Malaysia,Philippines,Singapore,Thailand,Vietnam,Myanmar and__________.
    (a) Bangladesh
    (b) Pakistan
    (c) China
    (d) Cambodia
  55. _______coordinates and monitor the implementation of SAARC programmes.
    (a) Council of Ministers of SAARC
    (b) Standing Committee of SAARC
    (c) SAARC Secretariat
    (d) Programming Committee of SAARC
  56. Current account convertibility process was completed by__________In India.
    (a) August 1995
    (b) January 1994
    (c) June 1993
    (d) July 1991
  57. Chairman of committee on capital account was______.
    (a) S.S. Tarapore
    (b) Y.V. Reddi
    (c) Kelkar
    (d) Raghuram Rajan
  58. Foreign exchange rate is determined by demand for and supply of foreign exchange in the market,according to______.
    (a) Mint parity theory
    (b) Purchasing power parity theory
    (c) Balance of payments theory
    (d) Forex Market
  59. The committee on capital account convertibility laid down three precondition
    (1) Fiscal consolidation
    (2) a mandated inflation target
    (3) __________________–
    (a) Strengthening of the financial sector
    (b) Reducing current account deficit
    (c) Strengthening industrial sector
    (d) 8% growth of G.D.P.
  60. Physical delivery of foreign exchange has to take place in case of__________.
    (a) Spot market
    (b) Option market
    (c) Future market
    (d) Forward market
  61. Which of the following receipts from agricultural operations is chargeable to tax?
    (a) Land situated in Andaman Island used for agricultural operations
    (b) Land situated in Lakshadweep
    (c) Land situated in Ladakh region
    (d) Land situated in Sri Lanka used for agricultural operations
  62. Which of the following companies is not an Indian company, as per Income Tax Act,1961?
    (a) Tata Motors Ltd.
    (b) Vodafone India Ltd.
    (c) Branch of Citi Bank NA
    (d) Life Insurance Corporation of India established under LIC Act,1956
  63. The maximum amount on which income tax is not chargeable for A.Y.2013-14 in case of a cooperative society is:
    (a) Rs. 2,50,000
    (b) Rs. 10,000
    (c) Rs. 1,00,000
    (d) Nil
  64. Minor as per Income Tax Act means an individual who has not completed the age of _____years.
    (a) 15
    (b) 18
    (c) 21
    (d) 25
  65. X is entitled to children education allowance of Rs. 200 p.m. for 3 children,including a twin. The exempt amount is:
    (a) Rs. 7,200
    (b) Rs. 2,400
    (c) Rs. 4,800
    (d) Rs. 3,600
  66. Rates of taxes deduction at source from payment to non-resident are given by:
    (a) Income tax Act,1961
    (b) Annual finance Act
    (c) Central Board of Direct Taxes
    (d) Finance Minister of India
  67. Rebate u/s 87A is available to an individual whose total income is below________.
    (a) Rs. 2,50,000
    (b) Rs. 3,00,000
    (c) Rs. 5,00,000
    (d) Rs. 10,00,000
  68. The aggregate limit for the deduction for interest on housing loan used for purchase and repairs of a self-acquired house property for A.Y.14-15 is___________.
    (a) Rs.30,000
    (b) Rs.1,50,000
    (c) Rs.1,80,000
    (d) No limit
  69. A purchased 100 equity shares of a listed company in Dec.2012 for Rs.50,000. He receives 100 bonus shares of that company in Feb.2014. He sells all 200 shares through stock exchange in Dec.2014 For Rs.60,000. the taxable capital gains will be:
    (a) Rs. 10,000
    (b) Rs. 30,000
    (c) Rs. 5,000
    (d) Nil
  70. X, HUF receives a gift of Rs. 51,000 from a relative of Mr.X the taxable amount is_____.
    (a) Rs. 51,000
    (b) Rs. 1,000
    (c) Rs. 25,000
    (d) Nil
  71. Deduction u/s 80 TTA is available in respect of interest earned from bank on_____.
    (a) Saving Account
    (b) Fixed Deposit Account
    (c) Recurring deposit account
    (d) Cash certificate
  72. The due date for filing income tax returns to a company subject to domestic transfer pricing audit is_____.
    (a) 31 st July
    (b) 30th September
    (c) 30 Novenber
    (d) 31st December
  73. The companies carrying on business are required to file their return of income in form No._____.
    (a) ITR -1
    (b) ITR -2
    (c) ITR -5
    (d) None of the above
  74. Deduction u/s 80E in respect of payment of interest on education loan is available to education beyond________.
    (a) 10th Standard
    (b) 12th Standard
    (c) Graduation
    (d) Primary education
  75. X owns two houses. Both are self-occupied. What is the limit for interest deduction on having loan in respect of deemed let out of property? (A.Y.2014-15)
    (a) Rs. 30,000
    (b) Rs.1,50,000
    (c) Rs.2,00,000
    (d) No limit

    Answer Key

    1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (c) 10 (d) 11 (c) 12 (b) 13 (d) 14 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 17 (c) 18 (d) 19 (c) 20 (a) 21 (a) 22 (b) 23 (b) 24 (b) 25 (b) 26 (d/a/b/c) 27 (d) 28 (c) 29 (d) 30 (d) 31 (c) 32 (a) 33 (c) 34 (a) 35 (c) 36 (d) 37 (d) 38 (d) 39 (a) 40 (c) 41 (b) 42 (a) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (c) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (a) 49 (b) 50 (d) 51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (a) 54 (d) 55 (c) 56 (b) 57 (a) 58 (b/c) 59 (a) 60 (a) 61 (d) 62 (d) 63 (b/d) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (b) 67 (c) 68 (b) 69 (a) 70 (d) 71 (a) 72 (c) 73 (d) 74 (b) 75 (d)