- Compute the fiscal deficit from the given data:
Total receipts are Rs. 13,500 crores and total expenditures are Rs. 15,000 crores. Revenue receipts are Rs. 3500 crores. Capital receipts in the form of Government’s market borrowings and other liabilities are Rs. 2500 crores. Loan recoveries are Rs. 7500 crores.
(a) Rs. 9000 crores
(b) Rs. 4000 crores
(c) Rs. 1500 crores
(d) Rs. 5000 crores - Which of the following are revenue receipts of the Central Government?
(A) GST
(B) Provident Fund
(C) Interest receipts
(D) Recoveries of loans and advances from State Governments
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A) and (C) only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Management Theories/Principles
(A) Father of Scientific Management
(B) 14 Principles of Management
(C) Bureaucracy
(D) Hawthorne Studies
List-II Management Thinkers
(I) Henri Fayol
(II) Elton Mayo
(III) Frederick W. Taylor
(IV) Max Weber
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), C -(II), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) - Who is the most well-known advocate of the Classical View of Social Responsibility stating that “Management’s only social responsibility is to maximize profits”?
(a) John Elkinton
(b) Edward Freeman
(c) Milton Friedman
(d) Henry Mintzberg - Goal-setting is an integral part of planning function of management. Arrange the following steps involved in the goal-setting process in the correct order.
(A) Evaluate available resources.
(B) Review the organization’s mission.
(C) Review results.
(D) Determine specific & measurable goals and communicate them.
Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - Arrange the following in an organization’s human resource management process in the correct order:
(A) Recruitment
(B) Performance Management
(C) Orientation
(D) Selection
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (D), (C), (B)
(b) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (A), (D), (B) - The demand curve for a product is given by:
Q = 900-40 P
Where Q is the quantity and P is the price of the product.
The price of the product is Rs. 15. What is the price elasticity of demand if the price increases to Rs. 20?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 2 - Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Indifference curves are downward sloping.
(b) Indifference curves intersect each other.
(c) Indifference curves are usually convex.
(d) Consumer preferences are assumed to be transitive. - Which of the following are the features of perfect competition?
(A) Product Heterogeneity.
(B) Free entry and exit of firms.
(C) The firm is a price maker.
(D) Large number of buyers and sellers.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - At a given cost level, a graph which shows combinations of labor and capital that can be used to produce is called:
(a) Indifference Curve
(b) Budget Line
(c) Isocost Curve
(d) Production Possibility Curve - Audit carried out throughout the year to check effectiveness of internal control system of the organization is called:
(a) Operational Audit
(b) Concurrent Audit
(c) Management Audit
(d) Internal Audit - Arrange the following steps in Audit process in the correct order.
(A) Formulation of audit plan
(B) Issuance of audit report
(C) Engagement of auditor
(D) Performing substantive procedures.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(b) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(c) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(d) (C), (A), (D), (B) - Mr. Ram is a Chartered Accountant in practice. His sister is the CEO of XYZ Limited. State whether Mr. Ram is qualified or disqualified to be an auditor of the ABC Limited, which is a subsidiary company of XYZ Limited.
(a) Not disqualified as per Section 141(3) of Companies Act, 2013
(b) Disqualified as per Section – 141(3) of Companies Act, 2013
(c) Not disqualified as per Section 140(3) of Companies Act, 2013
(d) Disqualified as per Section – 140(3) of Companies Act, 2013 - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Auditing Tools
(A) Internal Control System
(B) Internal Check
(C) Test Checking
(D) Routine Checking
List-II Underlying Meaning
(I) Examining less than whole population.
(II) The plan and procedures to ensure orderly and efficient conduct of business.
(III) Detailed examination of all aspects of a transaction.
(IV) A system where work carried out by one person is checked by another person.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) - Which of the following features of Amalgamation are in the nature of Merger as per the AS-14?
(A) Taking over of select few assets and liabilities.
(B) Intention to carry on the acquired business.
(C) Amalgamation Adjustment Account is opened in the books of transferee company to maintain statutory reserves.
(D) Recording of assets and liabilities of transferor company at book values.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (C) and (D) only
(b) (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only - The conversion rate between the physical rupee and the digital rupee is determined by which of the following in India?
(a) National Payment Corporation of India
(b) Ministry of Finance
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Market forces (Demand and Supply) - Which of the following is not a condition for the application of Garner vs. Murray case decision in the Dissolution of Partnership Firm?
(a) There must be more than two partners in the firm.
(b) There are at least two solvent partners with credit balances in their Capital Accounts on the date of dissolution.
(c) At least one partner is insolvent.
(d) There is an agreement among the partners to share insolvency loss in a particular ratio. - Which of the following transactions will not be recorded in the Branch Account maintained by the Head Office under the Debtors System?
(a) Goods sent by head office to branch
(b) Goods sold by branch to customers
(c) Cash sent by branch to head office
(d) Payment of branch expenses directly by head office - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Terms and conditions of an insurance policy
(A) Nomination
(B) Indemnity
(C) Assignment
(D) Guarantee
List-II Underlying Meaning
(I) It involves three parties, i.e., main debtor, creditor, and surety.
(II) Transfer of rights, title, and interest of policy to some person(s).
(III) Appointing some person(s) to receive policy benefits only when the policy has a death claim.
(IV) The insurer undertakes to make good the actual loss suffered.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) - Mr. A insures his house worth Rs. 10 crores with two insurers HDFC for Rs. 7.50 crores and Bajaj Allianz for Rs. 7.50 crores. The actual loss of house destroyed is Rs. 7 crores. Now, Mr. A can claim full loss of Rs. 7 crores either from HDFC or Bajaj Allianz or proportionately Rs. 3.5 crores from each of them.
Which principle of insurance is applicable in this situation?
(a) Principle of Causa Proxima
(b) Principle of Contribution
(c) Principle of Subrogation
(d) Principle of Uberrimae Fidei - Which of the following principles distinguishes an insurance contract from a wagering contract?
(a) Causa Proxima
(b) Indemnity
(c) Insurable Interest
(d) Subrogation - The sum of deviations of the items from ignoring signs is the least?
(a) Arithmetic Mean
(b) Harmonic Mean
(c) Median
(d) Mode - The relationship between mean, median and mode is:
(a) Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
(b) Median = 2 Mean – 3 Mode
(c) Mode = 2 Mean – 3 Median
(d) Mean = 3 Median – 2 Mode - Arrange the following cost concepts in the correct order in which they appear in the Cost Sheet.
(A) Works Cost
(B) Cost of Sales
(C) Prime Cost
(D) Cost of Production
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(b) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(c) (A), (C), (D), (B)
(d) (C), (A), (D), (B) - In a factory 1,000 workers were idle because of a power failure. As a result, a loss of production of 2,000 units of Product X and 4,000 units of Product Y occurred. Each employee was paid a normal wage at the rate of Rs. 100 per hour. One standard hour is required to manufacture five units of Product X and four units of Product Y. How much is the Idle Time Variance due to power failure?
(a) Rs. 1,40,000 (Adverse)
(b) Rs. 1,00,000 (Adverse)
(c) Rs. 6,00,000 (Adverse)
(d) Rs. 2,40,000 (Adverse) - Arrange the following needs in the order in which they appear in the Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs, starting from bottom to top.
(A) Social
(B) Physiological
(C) Esteem
(D) Safety
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (D), (A), (C)
(b) (B), (D), (C), (А)
(c) (D), (B), (A), (C)
(d) (D), (B), (C), (A) - Disbursing organisational authority for making decisions in an organised structure is called:
(a) Decentralization of authority
(b) Centralisation of authority
(c) Delegation of power
(d) Differentiation of authority - As per the scalar principle, which term is used for the relationship in which a superior exercises direct supervision over a subordinate?
(a) Staff Relationship
(b) Line authority
(c) Discipline
(d) Unity of Command - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Descriptive Narratives
(A) The unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organisation to the lowest echelon and clarifies who reports to whom
(B) The rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and to expect the orders to be obeyed
(C) The idea that a subordinate should have only one superior to whom she/he is directly responsible to
(D) The description about the number of levels /layers and managers in an organisation
List-II Management Concepts and Principles
(I) Unity of command
(II) Span of control
(III) Chain of command
(IV) Authority
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) -(III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I) - Arrange the following steps in the process of delegation of authority in the correct order.
(A) Assigning tasks to the position
(B) Determining the results expected from a position
(C) Delegating authority for accomplishing the tasks
(D) Holding the person in that position responsible for the accomplishment of tasks
Choose the correct sequence from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(c) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - Which type of computer is a large, powerful and expensive one that can support many users at one time, store vast amounts of data, and perform many tasks at the same time?
(a) Personal Computer
(b) Mainframe Computer
(c) Mini computer
(d) Micro computer - Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Linux is a very popular open source operating system
(b) Unix is a multi user operating system
(c) MS DOS stands for Microsoft Disk Operating System
(d) Google Chrome is an important operating system. - Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) When a cyclical pattern in data has a period of less than 1 year, the pattern in data is called seasonal variation
(B) When a cyclical pattern has a period more than 1 year, we refer to it as cyclical variation
(C) Seasonality is considered equivalent to forecasting
(D) Cyclical behaviour in business is also termed as business cycle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Methods to Deseasonalise the Time Series
(A) Method of simple average
(B) Ratio to Trend Method
(C) Ratio to moving average method
(D) Link relative method
List-II Underlying Meaning
(I) It assumes that seasonal variation for a given month is constant fraction of trend
(II) It is the easiest method of obtaining a seasonal index
(III) It is the most difficult method of measuring seasonal variations
(IV) It is also known as the percentage of moving average method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) - Which method of measurement of cyclical variation consists of eliminating seasonal variation and trend, for obtaining the cyclical irregularities?
(a) Residual Method
(b) Reference Cycle analysis method
(c) Direct Method
(d) Harmonic Analysis Method - A square matrix having all the elements above the leading diagonal equal to zero is known as:
(a) Null Matrix
(b) Zero Matrix
(c) Upper Triangular Matrix
(d) Lower Triangular Matrix - Which is the term used for a contract where both the parties to the contract have fulfilled their obligations under the contract?
(a) Executed Contract
(b) Unilateral Contract
(c) Reciprocal contract
(d) Quasi Contract - In a contract of sale, there is no implied condition as to quality or fitness for any particular purpose of goods supplied.
According to which rule, it is the duty of buyer to see and satisfy whether the goods purchased will be suitable for his purpose or not?
(a) Express Condition
(b) Let the seller beware
(c) Caveat Emptor
(d) Contingent Warranty - Which of the following are true statements relating to delivery of goods?
(A) Delivery and payment are concurrent conditions.
(B) Delivery may be actual, symbolic or constructive.
(C) Delivery may be at any time of the day only.
(D) Delivery of wrong quality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A) and (B) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - Which of the following tests are often employed to measure advertising effectiveness?
(A) Recognition test
(B) Inquiry test
(C) Reason-why test
(D) Sales test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - “Every person dealing with the company is presumed to have read the memorandum and articles of associations and understood them in their true perspective, irrespective of the fact whether one has actually read them or not.” The underlying doctrine in this regard is known as
(a) Doctrine of Indoor Management
(b) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
(c) Doctrine of Lapse
(d) Doctrine of Outdoor Management - Which of the following lays down that the affairs of the company are conducted perfectly consistent with the articles of association of the company, consequently the persons dealing with them are not to be affected by any irregularity which might have taken place in the management of the company?
(a) Doctrine of Indoor Management
(b) Doctrine of Lapse
(c) Doctrine of Constructive Notice
(d) Doctrine of Top Management - Which of the following generative Al applications is considered as the most disruptive?
(a) Chat GPT
(b) Gemini
(c) Copilot
(d) Deepseek - Match the following committees with their mandates in the List I and List II
List I Committees
(A) Malhotra Committee
(B) Narsimham Committee
(C) Vaghul Committee
(D) Shah Committee
List II Mandates
(I) NBFC Reforms
(II) Money Market Reforms
(III) Financial Sector Reforms
(IV) Insurance Sector Reforms
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) - Arrange the following steps involved in the book building process in the correct order.
(A) Determination of issue price, finalization of basis of allotment, issue of prospectus and allotment of shares
(B) Determination of price and asking for bids along with further revision of bids
(C) Submission of RHP and appointment of syndicate members
(D) Planning an IPO/FPO via Book Building and appointment of Lead book runners
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (D), (C), (B), (A) - Match the following terms in List I with their respective definitions in List II
List I System and Software Terms
(A) System software
(B) Operating system
(C) Compiler
(D) Application software
List II Definitions
(I) It is set of related programs that acts as an interface between the user and the computer system.
(II) It constitutes set of programs required for efficient management of the computer system and to provide an environment for developing application software
(III) It constitutes the set of programs developed by the developers for their use or to be used by clients.
(IV) It is a program that translates any program written in a high level language (source code) to machine language (object code).
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (I), (B) -(II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) - Arrange the following steps for solving Simplex linear programming problems in the correct order.
(A) Introduce Slack Variables
(B) Set up the initial basic feasible solution
(C) Set up the initial Simplex tableau and testing solution for optimality
(D) Revision of current Simplex tableau and test for optimality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - According to the Indian Budget Estimates 2025-26, arrange the following tax receipts from the lower to the higher order
(A) Custom Duty
(B) Corporate Taxes
(C) Income Tax
(D) GST Collection
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (D), (C)
(b) (A), (B), (C),(D)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - Sale price of a product is Rs. 50 per unit and its variable cost is Rs. 30 per unit. If the fixed cost is Rs. 20000, how many units of a product are to be sold to earn a profit of Rs. 5000?
(a) 1000 units
(b) 800 units
(c) 1250 units
(d) 700 units - The exchange rate differential between the currencies of the two countries is explained by which of the following:
(a) Fiscal deficit differential
(b) GDP growth rate differential
(c) Liquidity differential
(d) Interest-inflation rate differential - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Sources of Income
(A) Sale of jewelry
(B) Pension from former employer
(C) Salary received from a partnership firm
(D) Income from sub-letting of property
List-II Taxable Head
(I) Income from Salary
(II) Capital gain/loss
(III) Income from other sources
(IV) Profits and gains from business or profession
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Investments/Deposits/ Expenditure
(A) Deposit in Sukanya Samriddhi Account
(B) Interest on loan taken for higher education
(C) Preventive health checkup
(D) Rent paid for accommodation
List-II Sections for deduction
(I) 80E
(II) 80D
(III) 80GG
(IV) 80C
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
(b) (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
(c) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) - Which of the following statements are true?
(A) Agricultural income earned in India is exempted from tax.
(B) Scheme of partial integration is available for individual, HUF, AOP, BOI or artificial judicial person.
(C) For partial integration, net agricultural income of the individual assessee during the previous year should not exceed Rs. 5000,
(D) For partial integration, non-agricultural taxable income should exceed the exemption limit.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only - Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) Tax planning promotes professionalism and strengthens economic conditions.
(b) Tax planning is within the legal purview
(c) Tax evation ia s legal offence which may result in prosecution
(d) Tax avoidance is unlawful - Who has given the concept of 4P’s of Marketing?
(a) Philip Kotler
(b) E.J. McCarthy
(c) William J. Stanton
(d) Theodore Levitt - Which of the following statements are true about Niche marketing?
(A) It targets a specialised market segment with distinct preferences.
(B) It involves focusing on narrower segment.
(C) It is also known as undifferentiated marketing.
(D) It requires targeting multiple wider segments by meeting diverse needs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A) and (B) only - Identify the correct sequence for different levels of product?
(A) Augmented Product
(B) Basic Product
(C) Expected Product
(D) Potential Product
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(b) (B), (D), (C), (A)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (B), (A), (C), (D) - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Pricing Techniques
(A) Mark-up pricing
(B) Perceived value pricing
(C) Differential Pricing
(D) Price Skimming
List-II Underlying Meaning
(I) Company sets different prices for the same offering based on various attributes
(II) Setting an initial high price for a new product or service
(III) Adds a predetermined profit margin to cost of production
(IV) Setting prices based on the value perceived by the consumer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(c) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) - Which of the following is not a part of the traditional 4 Ps of marketing?
(a) Product
(b) Price
(c) Packaging
(d) Place - Which of the following contributes maximum in the Indian Gross Domestic Production (GDP)?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Services
(c) Manufacturing
(d) Export-Imports - Which of the following is a method for selecting and qualifying advertising goals and for using those goals to measure advertising performance?
(a) AIDA model
(b) DAGMAR Model
(c) PEST Model
(d) PESTEL Model - Unified Payment Interface (UPI) is developed, promoted and owned by which of the following?
(a) Government of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC)
(d) National Payment Corporation of India - Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) A proportional income tax is an automatic stabiliser.
(B) An increase in autonomous spending raises the equilibrium level of income.
(C) As the marginal propensity to consume gets larger, the lower the multiplier will be
(D) A reduction in transfer payments lower the output.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) only
(d) (A), (B), (C) and (D) - Which of the following represents the inverse relationship between the rate of unemployment and the rate of increase in money wages?
(a) IS curve
(b) Phillips Curve
(c) LM curve
(d) Indifference curve - Which of the following is not a part of the Circular flow of Income in a closed economy?
(a) Firms
(b) Households
(c) Government
(d) Foreign Institutional Investors - Among the following theories of international trade, which one is the oldest?
(a) Theory of Absolute Advantage
(b) Mercantilist Doctrine
(c) Factor Proportions Theory
(d) Theory of Comparative Advantage - Which of the following records the flow of foreign exchange from all international transactions over a period of time?
(a) Current Account
(b) Official Reserves Account
(c) Balance of trade
(d) Balance of Payments - Which of the following is not an objective of Economic Planning in India?
(a) Increase in Employment
(b) Rapid Economic Growth
(c) Reduction of Inequality of Incomes
(d) Increase in population growth - The difference between simple and compound interest on a sum for three years at 5% per annum is Rs. 76.30.
Find the sum.
(a) Rs. 9,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 11,000
(d) Rs. 11,700 - Which of the following terms is used in economics paralance to describe a person who receives the benefits of a good but avoids paying for it?
(a) Debtor
(b) Free Rider
(c) Willful Defaulter
(d) Ungrateful Beneficiary - Which of the following is not a negotiable instrument?
(a) Bill of exchange
(b) Promissory notes
(c) Bearer Cheques
(d) Letter of credit - specifies the minimum fraction of the total deposits of customers, which commercial banks have to hold
as reserves either in cash or as deposits with the Central Bank.
(a) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(b) Cash Reserve Ratio
(c) Repo Rate
(d) Reverse Repo rate - Match List-I with List-II
List-I Financial Institutions
(A) NABARD
(B) SFC
(C) IDBI
(D) SIDC
List-II Functions
(I) Apex institution to provide credit and finance for industrial development in the country
(II) Set up to promote rapid industrialisation and to bring about balanced regional development by assisting backward areas in particular
(III) Apex institution for financing agricultural and rural sectors.
(IV) Set up to assist small scale units for modernisation and technology upgradation at state level
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
(b) (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
(c) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
(d) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I) - Which of the following are the main functions of RBI?
(A) To maintain monetary stability in the economy
(B) To maintain stable payments system
(C) To regulate the overall volume of money and credit in the economy
(D) To promote the development of financial infrastructure of markets and systems
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - The recent increase in the tariffs by the USA on its trading partners undermines the institutional validity of which of the following?
(a) WTO
(b) GATT
(c) UNCTAD
(d) SAARC
