CUET (PG) Commerce
19 March 2024 Shift II
- 1. Which of the following cannot be a method of measuring dispersion?
(a) Range
(b) Interquartile range and quartile deviation
(c) Mean deviation or average deviation
(d) Skewness - 2. Autocorrelation in any regression model raises questions about the:
(a) Validity of the model
(b) Reliability of the model
(c) Statistical significance of the model
(d) Correlation between independent variables - 3. Following table gives the frequencies of occurrence of data values in a data set. Find out the mode.
Value Frequency 18 19
20
21
22
23
24
26
27
32
33
49
52
56
4 1
3
1
2
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
1
(a) 18
(b) 56
(c) 26.9
(d) 29.1 - 4. A company can buy-back its own shares or other specified securities by the following methods except:-
(a) from the existing security holders on a proportionate basis through the tender offer
(b) from open market through book-building process or stock exchange
(c) from any person through negotiated deals on the stock exchange
(d) from odd-lot holders - 5. An insurance contract is based on some basic principles of insurance, which of the following is against those principles?
(a) Principle of utmost good faith
(b) Principle of insurer interest
(c) Principle of causa proxima
(d) Principle of indemnity - 6. In reference to fire insurance following facts are given. Identify the correct statements.
(A) Fire insurance is a comprehensive policy which covers loss on account of fire, earthquake, riots, floods, strikes and malicious intent.
(B) Fire Insurance can be taken only by the owner of the premises to be insured.
(C) A tenant cannot insure rented premises but he can insure the contents of the premises.
(D) Fire insurance is compulsory if your house/flat is financed by bank or any other financial institutions.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 7. Which of the following are General Insurance companies in public sector?
(A) Oriental Insurance Company Limited
(B) New India Assurance Company Limited
(C) SBI General Insurance Company Limited
(D) United India Insurance Company Limited
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 8. Which of the following are the determinants for the price elasticity of demand?
(A) Availability of close substitutes
(B) Necessities versus Luxuries
(C) Definition of the market
(D) Time Horizon
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 9. It is said to be economies of scale when:
(a) long run average total cost declines as output increases
(b) long run average total cost rises as output increases
(c) long run average total cost does not vary with the level of output
(d) long run fixed cost stay constant as output increases - 10. A firm’s long-run decision to enter in or exit from a market depends upon firm’s ability to manage total revenue (TR), total cost (TC), quantity produced (Q), average total cost (ATC) and price of the goods (P). Which among the following is best suited for an entrepreneur interested to enter in a market?
(a) if TR < TC
(b) if TR/Q < TC/Q
(c) if P > ATC
(d) if P <ATC - 11. Keynesian relationship between income and consumption is termed as:
(a) Consumption
(b) Consumption expenditure
(c) The consumption function
(d) The production function - 12. To understand the use of scarce resources and to study the composition of GDP (Gross Domestic Product) among various types of spending, GDP is divided into which of the following components?
(A) Consumption
(B) Investment
(C) Governement Purchases and Net Exports
(D) Government Consumption and Net Imports
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (B), (C) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only - 13. Match List I with List II
List I
A. IS-LM model
B. IS curve
C. Intersection of IS and LM curves
D. LM curve
List II
I. shows the points that satisfy equilibrium in the goods market
II. combines Keynesian cross and the elements of the theory of liquidity preference
III. shows the points that satisfy equilibrium in the money market
IV. shows the interest rate and income that satisfy equilibrium in both markets for a given price level
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III - 14. The reasons which transform a valid contract into a void contract are given in List II while the example of each reason is given in List I.
Match List I with List II.
List I (Examples of transforming a valid contract into a void contract)
A. A and B contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, A goes mad.
B. A agrees to sell B 100 bags of wheat at Rs.1650 per bag. Before delivery, the Government bans private trading in wheat.
C. A contracts to give Rs.1000 as loan to B, if B marries C. C dies without being married to B.
D. A threatening to murder B’s son, makes B agrees to sell his car worth Rs.15,00,000 for a sum of Rs.5,00,000 only. B’s consent is not free and he may either affirm or reject the contract. And B decides to rescind the contract.
List II
I. Contract contingent
II. Repudiation of a voidable contract
III. Supervening impossibility
IV. Subsequent illegality
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 15. According to the Sale of Goods Act (Section 9), modes of fixing the price by one or the other are:
(A) It may be expressly fixed by the contract itself
(B) If the price is not capable of being determined in accordance with any of the other modes, the buyer is bound to pay the seller price of his own choice
(C) It may be determined by the course of dealings between the parties
(D) It may be fixed in accordance with an agreed manner provided by the contract
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (C) only
(b) (A), (B) and (D) only
(c) (A), (C) and (D) only
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 16. At how many levels consumer protection councils are established?
(a) two i.e. center and state
(b) three i.e. center, state and district
(c) four i.e. center, state, divisional and district
(d) five i.e. International, National, State, Divisional and District - 17. Arrange the following incidents in order of their occurence (First to Last)
(A) Establishment of LIC
(B) Establishment of IRDA
(C) The Insurance Act
(D) FDI in Insurance Sector in India
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(c) (D), (A), (B), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (A) - 18. Which among the following is an ancilliary function of Bank?
(a) Foreign Exchange
(b) Credit Creation
(c) Demand Deposits
(d) Lending of Funds - 19. Lead bank scheme of RBI aims for the following objectives except:
(a) to coordinate the activities of banks and other development agencies
(b) to achieve the objectives of enhancing the flow of bank finance to priority sector
(c) to promote the bank’s role in overall development of the rural sector
(d) to strengthen financial inclusion by providing payment/remittance to migrant labour workforce, low income households and small business - 20. An arrangement where a group of banks, which may not have any other business relationship with the borrower, participate for a single loan is known as:
(a) Consolidation in banking
(b) Collateral Financing
(c) Loan Syndication
(d) Loan diversification - 21. Which among the following can not be considered as a refinance institution?
(a) NABARD
(b) SIDBI
(c) EXIM Bank
(d) NHB - 22. Which among the following is an activity offered by SIDBI under promotional and developmental support or through “Credit Plus” approach?
(a) MSME Advisory
(b) Export Capability Creation
(c) Consultancy for project financing
(d) Pilot project for integrated development of backward blocks - 23. Which of the following is/are true for secondary market?
(A) Facilitates liquidity and marketability of securities
(B) Provides valuation of securities
(C) Enables Price Discovery
(D) Creates a wealth effect
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 24. Match List I with List II
List I
A. The Middle Office
B. Office Automation
C. Virtual Office
D. Back Office
List II
I. involved in administration but without being seen by customers
II. office without physical space and facilities
III. is a part of operations division of the business unit
IV. aim is to reduce paper work and speed up business operations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 25. Which among the following is not a function of filing system in office?
(a) classification of documents on a pre-determined basis
(b) filing of letters and other documents after action taken in cardboard file covers or folders
(c) preservation of file covers or folders in cabinets fitted with drawers
(d) disposal and discard of old papers and records when they are useful - 26. Which among the following is the correct abbreviation of computer terminology?
(a) Hyper Transfer Protocol (HTTP)
(b) World Wider Web (www)
(c) Read-only memory (ROM)
(d) (RAM) random memory - 27. GeM portal (Government e-market place) is a e-commerce platform.
(a) B2B (Business to Business)
(b) G2G (Government to Government)
(c) B2C (Business to Consumer)
(d) G2C (Governement to Consumer) - 28. Cyclical variations in time series
(a) exists due to ups & downs recurring after a period from time to time but they may not be uniformily periodic
(b) are a result of unforeseen and unpredictable forces which operate in absolutely random or erratic manner.
(c) takes place due to the rhythmic forces which operate in a regular and periodic manner.
(d) tendency of a data to increase or decrease or stagnate over a long period of time - 29. Apart from Gross Domestic Product (GDP), Gross National Income (GNI), and Net National Income (NNI) the other important indicators to measure health of an economy will be:
(a) capital formation and savings
(b) gross national expenditure
(c) income of HNI Citizens
(d) deposits in Swiss Bank - 30. Following are the statements highlighting the socio-economic indicators of India’s population.
Identify the correct statements.
(A) India has one of the lowest life expectancy (69.4 years)
(B) Since 1990’s, Indian economic growth is mainly based on manufacturing and services sector.
(C) Reproductive Health, measured by the maternal mortality ratio and adolescent birth rates
(D) Labour market participation, measured by the labour force participation rate of female and male populations aged 18 years and older.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only - 31. Indian Trade Classification (National Harmonized System of Goods) ITC (HS) Code is having —– digit.
(a) 10
(b) 8
(c) 6
(d) 12 - 32. This scheme provides refund of import duty on raw materials, components, and packing materials used in export product which reduced the input cost of export.
(a) Duty drawback
(b) Custom duty exemption
(c) Central excise rebate
(d) Income tax exemption - 33. Which Authority acts as a facilitator of exports and imports in India?
(a) DGFT (Director General, Foreign Trade)
(b) DGS&D (Director General, Supply & Depot)
(c) Minister of Commerce and Trade
(d) Chief Secretary, Ministry of Commerce and Trade - 34. Which of the following are the duty of an auditor?
(A) to measures business events in terms of profit and loss and communicate the financial conditions of the business
(B) to prepare a balance sheet representing a true and fair picture of the financial position of the business
(C) to prepare final accounts, computation of taxable, income, etc. while acts as an accountant
(D) to report whether the profit and loss account represents a true and fair picture of the profit or loss
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (B), (C) and (D) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only - 35. Clerical errors in the book of accounts are classified as:
(a) Errors of omission and errors of commission
(b) Compensating and non compensating errors
(c) Errors of duplication and error of replication
(d) Errors of principle and subjective errors - 36. If internal control is _______, the auditor may confine his _______ only to a representative number of transactions and avoid a detailed verification of every transaction, which will be costly both in terms of time and money.
(a) Effective, audit procedures
(b) Low, practice
(c) Ineffective, audit procedure
(d) High, accounting work - 37. Match List I (Section) with List II (Dealing with matters)
List I
A. Sec. 227
B. Sec. 226
C. Sec. 231
D. Sec. 230
List II
I. Right of auditors to attend general meeting
II. Reading and inspection of auditor’s report
III. Qualification and disqualifications of auditors
IV. Powers and duties of auditors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 38. According to Income Tax Act. 1961, Assessesee in default is a person who:
(a) is deemed to be an assessee for some other person
(b) a person who has failed to fulfil his statutory obligations as per the Income Tax Act
(c) is the person who is liable to pay the income tax during a assessment year
(d) is the person by whom any tax or any other sum of money is payable under this Act - 39. Long term capital gain is not exempted in which of the following case?
(a) Transfer of a residential house and investment in one residential house
(b) Transfer of agricultural lands
(c) Compulsory acquisition of land and building of industrial undertakings
(d) Transfer of assets - 40. Which among the following is a demerit of direct tax?
(a) Certainty
(b) Equity
(c) Arbitrary
(d) Elasticity and productivity - 41. Under the Income Tax Act, 1961 a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) consists the following except:
(a) all persons lineally descended from a common ancestor and includes their wives
(b) unmarried daughters
(c) a stranger who has been residing with the family since 10 years
(d) head of the HUF “Karta” - 42. A company can remove a director before the expiry of the period of his office by passing:
(a) a special resolution
(b) an ordinary resolution
(c) a resolution by special notice
(d) a board resolution - 43. Where title in shares of a company is in dispute, the matter has to be resolved by:
(a) Court
(b) Arbitrator
(c) Company Law Board
(d) Central Government - 44. Any general meeting held between two annual general meetings will be called:
(a) an extraordinary general meeting
(b) a board meeting
(c) a statutory meeting
(d) a class meeting - 45. Out of the following statements, which one is incorrect as regard to the Director Identification Number (DIN)?
(a) DIN is a unique identification number and once obtained is valid throughout the lifetime of a director
(b) DIN is mandatory for all directors of Indian companies whether they are citizens of India or not
(c) DIN is mandatory for directors of foreign company having branch offices in India
(d) A single DIN is required for an individual irrespective of number of directorships held by him - 46. Match List I with List II
List I
A. Actual Estimates
B. Provisional Estimates
C. Budget Estimates
D. Advanced Estimates
List II
I. Estimates of the coming financial year
II. Estimates of revenue and expenditure of the current financial year
III. Estimates of expenditure and receipts of the preceding financial year
IV. These estimates are made before the actual occurrence of economic activity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 47. Which of the following statement is true for Securities Transaction Tax?
(a) levied on the buying or selling of shares in the stock market
(b) also known as inheritance tax
(c) imposed on the transaction of commodities in commodity exchanges
(d) introduced in 2022-23 - 48. Financial year in India end on:
(a) March 31st
(b) April 1st
(c) December 31st
(d) April 30th - 49. All are the example of assigned revenue except
(a) Entertainment tax
(b) Surcharge on stamp duty
(c) Surcharge on land revenue
(d) Custom duty - 50. Match List I with List II
List I
A. Service Tax
B. Excise Duty
C. Central Sales Tax
D. Custom Duty
List II
I. Levied on sales generated during inter-state trade and commerce in a country and subsumed under GST
II. Actually borne by the customers and subsumed under GST
III. Levied by the central Government of India for the production, sale or license of certain goods and it is replaced by the GST
IV. Tax imposed on exports and imports of goods
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 51. A matrix having only m rows and one column is called:
(a) Row Matrix
(b) Column Matrix
(c) Square Matrix
(d) Scalar Matrix - 52. Amit deposited Rs. 1200 to a bank at 9% interest p.a. find the total interest that he will get at the end of 3 years.
(a) Rs.324
(b) Rs.296
(c) Rs.326
(d) Rs.300 - 53. For a certain establishment, the total revenue function R and the total cost function C are given by
R = 83x – 4×2 – 21 and c = x3 – 12×2 + 48x + 11 where x = output.
Obtain the output for which profit is maximum
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 8
(d) 6 - 54. In order to maintain the organizational hierarchy arrange the following in ascending order (lower rank will come first).
(A) CEO
(B) Middle Management
(C) First Line Managers
(D) Rank and File Employees
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(c) (D), (C), (B), (A)
(d) (D). (B), (C), (A) - 55. Arrange the following in order of its sequence in decision making process
(A) Analyze the alternatives
(B) Generate multiple alternatives
(C) Recognize that a decision needs to be made
(D) Implement the selected alternative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (C), (A), (B), (D)
(b) (C), (B), (A), (D)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (A), (B), (D), (C) - 56. Arrange the following contributors in developing management thought and theories in different time period (Oldest to Newest)
(A) Henri Fayol
(B) Elton Mayo
(C) Chester Barnard
(D) Abraham Maslow
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D), (Α)
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (A) - 57. According to the traditional control model approach arrange the sequence of steps in controlling process.
(A) Monitor ongoing organizational behavior and results
(B) Evaluate and take action
(C) Compare actual behavior and results against standards
(D) Establish standards
Choose the correct sequences of steps from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (A), (C), (B), (D)
(c) (D), (A), (C), (B)
(d) (D). (C), (A), (B) - 58. Four Ps concept takes the seller’s view of the market, not the buyer’s view. From the buyer’s viewpoint, four Ps are described as four As.
Match List I (Four Ps) with List II (Four As)
List I
A. Product
B. Price
C. Place
D. Promotion
List II
I. Affordability
II. Acceptability
III. Awareness
IV. Accessibility
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III - 59. Consumers go through five stages in the process of adopting a new product. Arrange the initial four stage in its correct sequence.
(A) Interest
(B) Awareness
(C) Trial
(D) Evaluation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(c) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(d) (A), (C), (B), (D) - 60. Match List I (Retailer Type) with List II (Description)
List I
A. Specialty Store
B. Convenience Store
C. Supermarket
D. Departmental Store
List II
I. A store that carries several product lines typically clothing, home furnishing and household goods.
II. A relatively large, low-cost, low-margin, high-volume, self-service operation designed to serve the customers’ total needs for grocery and household products.
III. A store that carries a narrow product line with a deep assortment.
IV. A relatively small store located near residential areas.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 61. Arrange the alternative concepts under which organizations design their marketing strategies in order of the evolution
(A) Product Concept
(B) Production Concept
(C) Selling Concept
(D) Marketing Concept
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(c) (B), (A), (C), (D)
(d) (C), (B). (D), (Α) - 62. Arrange the following steps of selling process in correct order.
(A) Prospecting and qualifying
(B) Preapproach then approach,
(C) Presentation and demonstration
(D) Handling objections, closing, and follow-up
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C), (A), (D)
(c) (B), (C), (D), (Α)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - 63. Which of the following are the possible objectives of Informative Advertising?
(A) Communicating customer value
(B) Telling the market about a new product
(C) Maintaining customer relationships
(D) Explaining how a product works
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
(d) (B), (C) and (D) only - 64. Match List I (advertising Media) with List II (Limitations)
List I
A. Newspapers
B. Direct mail
C. Radio
D. Outdoor
List II
I. Relatively high cost per exposure
II. Creative limitation
III. Short life
IV. Fragmented audiences
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II - 65. Advertising appeals should have which of the following characteristics?
(A) Entertaining
(B) Meaningful
(C) Distinctive
(D) Believable
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) only
(d) (A), (C) and (D) only - 66. Accounting standards deal with various aspects of accounting events. Arrange it in proper sequence
(A) the disclosures relating to these transactions and events
(B) presentation of these transactions and events in the financial statements
(C) recognition of events and transactions in the financial statements
(D) measurement of these transactions and events
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (C), (D), (A)
(c) (C), (D), (B), (A)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - If goods are invoiced to the branch at cost, the trading results of branch which of the following methods:
(A) Debtors Method
(B) Trading and Profit and Loss Account (Final Account) method
(C) Stock and Debtors method
(D) Whole sale branches method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (A), (B) and (C) only
(c) (B), (C) and (D) only
(d) (C), (D) only - 68. Which among the following are true about Hire Purchase?
(A) The title to goods passes on last payment in hire purchase
(B) The seller can sue for price if the buyer is in default. He cannot take possession of the goods.
(C) The hirer is not responsible for risk of loss of goods if he has taken reasonable precaution because the ownership has not yet transferred.
(D) Component, other than cash price included in instalment is called Hire charges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B) and (D) only
(b) (B), (C) and (D) only
(c) (A). (C), and (D) only
(d) (A), (B) and (C) only - 69. Match List I with List II
List I
A. GAAP
B. IASB
C. NFRA
D. MCA
List II
I. covers the recognition, measurement, presentation and disclosure of accounting transactions
II. responsible for approval of accounting standards and their modification for the purpose of applicability to companies
III. refers to a common set of accepted accounting principles, standards and procedures that business reporting entity follows
IV. responsible for developing International Accounting Standards
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I - 70. Match List I (Costing) with List II (Industry where applicable)
List I
A. Batch costing
B. Joint cost
C. Operating cost
D. Process costing
List II
I. Oil industry
II. School
III. Pharma industry
IV. Refineries
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV - 71. Match the items shown in Financial Accounts
List I
A. Purely financial charge
B. Appropriation of Profits
C. Writing off intangible and fictitious assets
D. Pure Financial incomes
List II
I. Dividend received
II. Interest on bank loan, mortgage and debentures
III. Dividend paid
IV. Amortisation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I - 72. Match List I (Term) with List II (Explanation)
List I
A. Formalization
B. Span of control
C. Command and control
D. Specialization
List II
I. degree to which people are organized into subunits according to their expertise
II. refers to the way in which people report to one another or connect to coordinate their efforts in accomplishing the work of the organization
III. the degree of definition in the roles that exist throughout an organization
IV. scope of the work that any one person in the organization will be accountable for
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I - 73. Arrange the sequence of following institution in order of the year of establishment (old to new)
(A) NABARD
(B) IDBI
(C) SIDBI
(D) IDFC
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) (A), (B), (C), (D)
(b) (B), (A), (C), (D).
(c) (B), (A), (D), (C)
(d) (C), (B), (D), (Α) - 74. Trade Mark which hold a substantial financial value becomes a:
(a) Registered Trademark
(b) Copyright
(c) Brand
(d) Patent - 75. Employer’s contribution to pension fund is specified u/s:
(a) 80CCD
(b) 80CCD (1B)
(c) 80C
(d) 10D