- Political stability means
(a) A single political party forming the Government
(b) Continuity in policy of the country irrespective of the party in power
(c) A single political party getting huge majority in elections
(d) Consensus on major decisions among political parties - The supply side of economic reforms is known as
(a) Macro economic stabilisation
(b) First generation reforms
(c) Market economy reforms
(d) Structural reforms - Assertion (A) : One finds always a difference of opinion between the Government and the RBI regarding interest rates.
Reasoning (R) : While the main focus of the Government is on growth, the RBI always focuses on inflation.
Codes :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) (A) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(c) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect and (R) is correct - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Ease of doing business i) Regulation of real estate b) Bankruptcy law ii) Planning and policy guidance c) RERA iii) Entry policy d) Niti Aayog iv) Exit policy Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) - Statement (a) : In a broader sense, privatisation involves withdrawal of the State from the lives and activities of the people.
Statement (b) : The ultimate objective of the privatisation is to move towards a market economy.
Codes :
(a) Both statements are true
(b) Both statements are wrong
(c) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is wrong
(d) Statement (a) is wrong and (b) is correct - According to new definition of MSMEs a micro enterprise is an enterprise having a revenue of
(a) Less than Rs. 5 crores
(b) Less than Rs. 1 crore
(c) Less than Rs. 50 lakhs
(d) Less than Rs. 25 lakhs - The initiator of second generation reforms in India
(a) P.V. Narasimha Rao
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(d) Manmohan Singh - India is lagging behind China in merchandise exports mainly because of
(a) Uncompetitive Indian Industry
(b) Non-provision of export duties
(c) Lack of encouragement to exports
(d) Underdeveloped ports - Accounting concepts are based on
(a) Certain assumptions
(b) Certain facts and figures
(c) Certain accounting models
(d) Accounting standards - Arrange the following in the order in which they appear under Accounting Standards issued by ASB till 2007.
I. Revenue Recognition
II. Valuation of Inventories
III. Depreciation Accounting
IV. Cash Flow Statements
Codes :
(a) I III II IV
(b) II IV III I
(c) II III IV I
(d) III IV II I - Which of the following is not related to responsibility accounting ?
(a) Cost Centre
(b) Investment Centre
(c) Accounting Centre
(d) Revenue Centre - The concept of budget that requires justification for every rupee to be spent for a specific purpose is
(a) Responsibility Budget
(b) Master Budget
(c) Flexible Budget
(d) Zero-based Budget - Justice P.N. Bhagavathi report relates to
(a) Securitisation of equity
(b) Securitisation of debt
(c) Mutual funds
(d) Mergers and acquisitions - OTCEI is a
(a) Stock Exchange Centre
(b) Financial Institution
(c) Trade Association
(d) Subsidiary of RBI - Nikkie belongs to
(a) Nigerian Stock Exchange Centre
(b) Tokyo Stock Exchange Centre
(c) Nepal Stock Exchange Centre
(d) N. Korean Stock Exchange Centre - BOLT was started in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1993
(c) 1995
(d) 1987 - Arrange the following in the order in which they were established ?
I. BSE
II. NSE
III. LSE
IV. UTI
Codes :
(a) III I II IV
(b) III II I IV
(c) IV II I III
(d) II III IV I - Assertion (A) : NAV is associated with Mutual Fund Industry.
Reason (R) : NAV is a measure of performance of an investment plan.
Codes :
(a) (A) is correct, but (R) is incorrect
(b) (A) is incorrect, but (R) is correct
(c) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(d) Both (a) and (R) are correct - Given the budgeted sales two times that of break-even sales, then the margin of safety will be
(a) 50%
(b) 5%
(c) 100%
(d) 200% - Statement (a) : One finds usually a difference between accounting profit and economic profit.
Statement (b) : While accountant takes both explicit and implicit costs, economist takes only implicit costs into account in finding out total cost.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(b) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(c) Both (a) and (b) incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct - Statement (a) : Both Average Cost (AC) curve and the Average Variable Cost (AVC) curve look the same in all aspects.
Statement (b) : The gap between AC and AVC curves narrows down with the increase in output.
Codes :
(a) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct
(b) Both the statements are correct
(c) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(d) Both statements are wrong - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Homogeneous product i) Monopoly b) Differentiated product ii) Oligopoly c) Unique product iii) Perfect competition d) Production requiring huge investment iv) Monopolistic competition Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) - Which of the following is not an equivalent of the term ‘marginal’ ?
(a) Slope
(b) Derivative
(c) Rate of change
(d) Degree of change - Which one of the following is true with regard to indifference curves ?
(a) Indifference curves are usually convex to the origin.
(b) Indifference curve touches the ‘X’ axis.
(c) Sometimes two indifference curves intersect.
(d) Indifference curves are based on cardinal approach. - Profit maximising rate of output of a firm is determined by equating
(a) Marginal Cost with Marginal Revenue
(b) Marginal Cost with Average Cost
(c) Marginal Cost with Average Revenue
(d) Average Cost with Average Revenue - When the difference between average revenue and average cost is zero
(a) The firm is neither making profit nor incurring loss
(b) The firm is making normal profit
(c) The firm is making economic profit
(d) The firm is making economic loss - The maximum quantity of a product or service that can be produced by a set off inputs is known as
(a) Optimum production
(b) Production function
(c) Maximum production
(d) Total production - Regression analysis helps in establishing a ________ relationship between two or more variables.
(a) Meaningful
(b) Functional
(c) Cordial
(d) Coefficient - A distribution in which values of median, mean and mode are not equal is considered as
(a) Normal distribution
(b) Symmetrical distribution
(c) Asymmetrical distribution
(d) Theoretical distribution - Statement (a) : A statistical test, in which specific assumptions are made about the population parameter is known as parametric test.
Statement (b) : Parametric tests are used in most of the cases because they do not require that the data follow the normal distribution.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(b) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
(c) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct - The method used to compare the means of more than two populations simultaneously is called
(a) Testing of hypothesis
(b) Analysis of variance
(c) Latin square design
(d) ‘Z’ test - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Normal distribution i) One dependent variable b) Chi-square test ii) Positively skewed c) Poisson distribution iii) Unimodal d) Multiple regression iv) Goodness of fit test Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) - When two responses are taken from the same respondent at two points of time, it is called
(a) Multiple sample
(b) Dependent sample
(c) Independent sample
(d) Two tailed test - Time series analysis are a form of
(a) Longitudinal designs
(b) Serial designs
(c) Sectional designs
(d) Latitudinal designs - When null hypothesis is accepted, it can be assumed that proportions are _______ and the differences are due to chance.
(a) Small
(b) Large
(c) Equal
(d) Different - The famous definition of management “Management is what a manager does” is given by
(a) Peter F. Drucker
(b) Henry Fayol
(c) Louis A. Allen
(d) F.W. Taylor - The management thinker who concentrated his contributions to the shop floor management
(a) Louis A. Allen
(b) Lillian Gilberth
(c) Robert Owen
(d) F.W. Taylor - Kaizen believes in
(a) Doing things right
(b) Doing right things
(c) Continuous improvement
(d) Total quality management - The decision making model associated with the name of Simon is
(a) Managerial grid model
(b) Objective model
(c) Rational model
(d) Administrative model - Statement (a) : An autocratic leadership style occurs when power is split between the leader and his or her staff.
Statement (b) : Charismatic leadership is to involve staff and others in the decision making process.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(b) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
(c) (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Henry L. Gantt i) Kanban approach b) Clayton Paul Alderfer ii) Theory Z c) Taichi Ohno iii) ERG theory d) William Ouchi iv) Task and bonus plan Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) - Person who reduced the working hours of employees from 14 hours to 10.5 hours for the first time is
(a) F.W. Taylor
(b) Robert Owen
(c) Peter F. Drucker
(d) William Galbraith - Assertion (a) : The ERG theory presumes that different levels of needs can be activated at the same time.
Reasoning (R) : A lower level need does not have to be completely satisfied before higher level needs can emerge.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(c) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct - Production concept is called
(a) Mass distribution concept
(b) Mass targeting concept
(c) Mass production and distribution concept
(d) Mass quality concept - Perceptual mapping is
(a) Consumer brain mapping
(b) Distributors brain mapping
(c) Positioning of product in a map
(d) Wholesaler brain mapping - Lifestyle analysis considers
(a) Attractions, interests and opinions
(b) Activities, investments and opinions
(c) Activities, interests and opportunities
(d) Activities, interests and opinions - Homogeneous market consists of
(a) Customers of divergent needs
(b) Customers of similar characteristics
(c) customers of similar income levels
(d) Customers of similar lifestyles - in which of the following stage of a product’s life premium price is charged for a product ?
(a) Introduction
(b) Growth
(c) Maturity
(d) Decline - A group of products within a product class that are closely related is called
(a) Product family
(b) Product class
(c) Product line
(d) Product type - The 5th ‘P’ of marketing mix strategy is
(a) Positioning
(b) Packaging
(c) Propaganding
(d) Protecting - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Utility theory i) Leon Fistinger b) Cognitive Dissonance Theory ii) Henry Ford c) Societal Marketing Concept iii) Alfred Marshall d) Production Concept iv) Thorstein Veblen Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)
(b) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii) - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Market segmentation i) High price, high promotion b) Rapid skimming strategy ii) New product development c) Idea generation iii) Target marketing d) DAGMAR iv) An advertising model Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(b) (iii) (i) (ii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) - Statement (a) : Advertising budget is planning for certain activities with amount allocated to each within the specified period.
Statement (b) : USP gives leverage to an advertising communication as the creative message of the product is disseminated.
Codes :
(a) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(b) Both the statements (a) and (b) are correct
(c) Both the statements (a) and (b) are incorrect
(d) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct - Statement (a) : Services are intangible and inseparable.
Statement (b) : The idea of service positioning relates to the way consumers perceive and evaluate the service.
Codes :
(a) Statements (a) and (b) are correct
(b) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(c) Statements (a) and (b) are incorrect
(d) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct - If the net cash returns (estimated in current prices) from a project are Rs. 5,000, the expected inflation rate is 5% p.a. and the cost of capital is 15.5% p.a., the discounted cash inflows at the end of first year will be
(a) Rs. 5,250
(b) Rs. 5,775
(c) Rs. 4,329
(d) Rs. 4,54556. - Assertion (A) : NI approach to capital structure implies maximum Ko when the degree of financial leverage is equal to zero.
Reasoning (R) : NI approach to capital structure implies maximum Vf when the degree of financial leverage is equal to one.
Codes :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
(d) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Pareto Analysis i) NI approach b) Variance of cash flows ii) NOI approach c) Vf = Ve + Vd iii) Miller-Orr Model d) Vf = EBIT ÷ Ko iv) Inventory Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii) - If the spot price of a call option is more than the exercise price, then
(a) Intrinsic value > 0
(b) Intrinsic value < 0
(c) Option is in the money
(d) Both (a) and (c) - Given that the standard deviation of return of an asset is 0.024, the variance of the market rate of return is 0.004, the co-efficient of correlation of portfolio with market is 0.9, the market sensitivity index will be
(a) 0.012
(b) 0.018
(c) 1.08
(d) 1.00 - A company which comes to the rescue of a firm targeted for take-over is called
(a) Protector
(b) White knight
(c) White squire defence
(d) Greenmail - Assertion (a) : Annual lease rentals, in case of a lessee, are allowed for deduction for computing the taxable income.
Reasoning (R) : depreciation, in case of a lessor, is not allowed for deduction.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (R) are correct
(b) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(c) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect and (R) is corre - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Interest rate risk i) Unsystematic risk b) Financial risk ii) Single factor model c) APM model iii) Systematic risk d) CAPM model iv) Multifactor model Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv) - When actual achievement is compared with the job objectives, it is called
(a) Job evaluation
(b) Job condition
(c) Job performance
(d) Job description - Statement (1) : Ranking is the simple act of comparison and learning for organisational improvement.
Statement (2) : Training is continuous and stops only when an organisation ceases to exist.
Codes :
(a) Both (1) and (2) are incorrect
(b) Both (1) and (2) are correct
(c) (1) is correct and (2) is incorrect
(d) (1) is incorrect and (2) is correct - The error committed by rejecting an applicant who would have been successful on the job is called
(a) True negative error
(b) False negative error
(c) False positive error
(d) True positive error - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Fringe benefits i) Stock option b) Job context ii) Group plans c) Perquisites iii) Medical care d) Incentives iv) Challenging job responsibilities Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(b) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(c) (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) - Worker who does not produce standard output would get ________ of the normal piece rate under Taylor’s differential piece rate system.
(a) 60%
(b) 75%
(c) 80%
(d) 90% - Job enlargement is
(a) Adding of more jobs to the existing job
(b) Adding of more employees to the existing job
(c) Adding of more time to the existing job
(d) Adding of more fun to the existing job - Effective leader is an individual who influences his
(a) Mentors
(b) Co-workers
(c) Followers
(d) Other leaders - Identify the following statements which are true.
i) Conflicts arise due to factors such as economic, social and psychological.
ii) A simple but powerful technique of organisational change is time budgeting.
iii) Personnel planning should not be responsive to organisational needs.
iv) Gains in productivity will influence employee retrenchment.
Codes :
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iii)
(d) (ii) and (iv) - Statement (a) : Perception, attitude and defensive mechanism are basis of behaviour.
Statement (b) : The positive attitude triggers enthusiasm, energy, creativity, causes good things to happen.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (b) statements are incorrect
(b) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is incorrect
(c) Statement (a) is incorrect and (b) is correct
(d) Both (a) and (b) statements are correct - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) A state of restful alertness i) Slowness of thought b) Transactional analysis ii) Merit rating c) Melancholic iii) Interpersonal relations d) Performance evaluation iv) Relaxation Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(b) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
(c) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
(d) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) - The ability of a person to influence others is called
(a) Power
(b) Authority
(c) Responsibility
(d) Accountability - The number of digits in an IFSC code is
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12 - The purpose of open market operations is the regulation of
(a) Liquidity in the economy
(b) Inflation
(c) Borrowing powers of banks
(d) Foreign direct investment - Match the following :
Committee Recommendation a) Sinha Committee i) Smart card b) Saraf Committee ii) Electronic fund transfer c) K.S. Shere Committee iii) Amalgamation of RRBs d) Narasimhan Committee iv) Financial inclusion Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(b) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(c) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) - The sponsorship between State Government, Central Government and sponsor bank is in the ratio of ________ in respect of RRBs in the country.
(a) 15 : 50 : 35
(b) 50 : 35 : 15
(c) 35 : 15 : 50
(d) 35 : 50 : 15 - Statement (a) : When a banker provides the locker facility to a customer, the relationship between them is that of bailor and bailee.
Statement (b) : Debentures are governed by company law.
Codes :
(a) Both the statements are correct
(b) Both the statements are wrong
(c) Statement (a) is correct and (b) is wrong
(d) Statement (b) is correct and (a) is wrong - The headquarters of SIDBI is in
(a) Lucknow
(b) New Delhi
(c) Mumbai
(d) Kolkata - What is the NABARD’s pilot project for digitization of SHGs called ?
(a) e-Shakthi
(b) e-Samriddhi
(c) e-Shanthi
(d) e-Samraksha - The interest rate at which banks can borrow funds in marketable size from other banks in the Indian Inter-bank market is
(a) Repo-Rate
(b) Hard-currency
(c) LIBOR
(d) MIBOR - Match the following :
List – I List – II a) Greenfield i) Economically obsolete b) Brownfield ii) Not following a prior work c) Greyfield iii) Design, construct, equip and handover d) Turnkey iv) Modified or upgraded Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
(b) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(c) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) ASEAN i) 1985 b) SAARC ii) 1994 c) NAFTA iii) 1993 d) Eu iv) 1967 Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii)
(c) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
(d) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii) - If a currency rate is set by the market, it is known as
(a) Forward exchange rate
(b) Fixed exchange rate
(c) Floating exchange rate
(d) Spot exchange rate - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Masala bond i) Convertible bond b) Euro bond ii) Issued by non- Japanese companies in Japan c) Samurai bond iii) Issued outside India but denominated in Indian rupees d) FCCB iv) Denominated in a currency other than the home currency Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
(b) (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
(c) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
(d) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) - One trillion is equal to
(a) 100 billions
(b) 1000 millions
(c) 1000 billions
(d) 1000 lakhs - “Exports are per se good and imports are per se bad” is related to
(a) Theory of Mercantilism
(b) Theory of Absolute Advantage
(c) Theory of Comparative Advantage
(d) Heckscher-Ohlin Theory - In India rupee is
(a) Fully convertible under capital account
(b) Fully convertible under current account
(c) Fully convertible under current account and partially convertible under capital account
(d) Fully convertible both under capital and current accounts - Which of the following is not an objective of FEMA ?
(a) Removal of restrictions on drawl of foreign exchange for the purpose of capital account transactions
(b) Orderly development and maintenance of foreign exchange market
(c) Facilitating exports and imports
(d) Making dealings in foreign exchange much more liberal - Assertion (a) : FDI flows to oligopolistic industries are a reflection of strategic rivalry between firms in the global market place.
Reasoning (R) : What one firm does can have immediate impact on major competitors.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(b) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect
(c) Both (a) and (R) are correct
(d) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct - Assertion (a) : Backward vertical FDI occurs when the multinational enterprise enters a foreign country to produce intermediaries goods that are intended to use as inputs in its home country production process.
Reason (R) : Availability of quality distributors is limited.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (R) are incorrect
(b) (a) is incorrect and (R) is correct
(c) Both (a) and (R) are correct
(d) (a) is correct and (R) is incorrect - If a basket of goods costs US $ 200 in US and Rs. 20,000 in India, the $/Rs. exchange rate should be $ 0.01 per rupee. This calculation is done based on
(a) Competitive cost theory
(b) Floating exchange rate
(c) Fixed exchange rate
(d) Purchasing parity theory - Total income of an individual or a HUF, for the purpose of determining tax liability, includes agricultural income provided agricultural income exceeds
(a) Rs. 5,000
(b) Rs. 10,000
(c) Rs. 15,000
(d) Rs. 20,000 - Profit of the hotel business at Melbourne is taxable in the case of
(a) Resident assessee
(b) Not ordinarily resident
(c) Non-resident assessee
(d) Both non-resident and not-ordinarily resident - Which of the following is/are exempted from tax ?
(a) Income of a mutual fund set-up by a public sector bank
(b) Income of SAARC fund
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b) - Match the following :
List – A List – B a) Public Corporation i) Person who has not deducted tax at source b) Deemed assessee ii) Artificial juridical person c) Assessee-in- default iii) Local authority d) District board iv) Legal representative Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(a) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(d) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii) - Statement (a) : Salary head of income does not include salary of a partner.
Statement (b) : “Profits and gains of business or profession” head of income includes salary of a partner.
Codes :
(a) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(b) Both (a) and (b) are incorrect
(c) (a) is correct but (b) is incorrect
(d) (a) is incorrect but (b) is correct - Rental income from the staff quarters provided by an employer to his employees is taxable under the head
(a) Income from house property
(b) Income from business or profession
(c) Income from other sources
(d) Income from salary - Standard deduction, for the expenses incurred (except interest), is allowed for deduction from annual value at 30% in the case of
(a) Let-out property
(b) Self-occupied property
(c) Deemed to be let-out property
(d) Both let-out and deemed to be let- out property - Mr. X purchases a plant from Mr. Y for Rs. 7 lakh. Then, Mr. X sells its to Mr. Z for Rs. 8 lakh. The WDV of the plant on the date of sale by Mr. Y was Rs. 4 lakh. After purchases, Mr. Z leases it to Mr. Y. The cost of acquisition of the plant for computing depreciation in the hands of Mr. Z would be
(a) Rs. 4 lakh
(b) Rs. 7 lakh
(c) Rs. 3 lakh
(d) Rs. 8 lakhAnswer Key
1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (c) 5 (a) 6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (a) 9 (a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 (b) 14 (a) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (a) 18 (d) 19 (a) 20 (b) 21 (b) 22 (c) 23 (d) 24 (a) 25 (a) 26 (b) 27 (b) 28 (b) 29 (c) 30 (c) 31 (b) 32 (d) 33 (b) 34 (a) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (d) 38 (c) 39 (d) 40 (b) 41 (b) 42 (b) 43 (a) 44 (c) 45 (a) 46 (d) 47 (b) 48 (a) 49 (c) 50 (b) 51 (d) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (a) 55 (d) 56 (a) 57 (d) 58 (d) 59 (c) 60 (b) 61 (c) 62 (b) 63 (c) 64 (c) 65 (b) 66 (d) 67 (c) 68 (a) 69 (c) 70 (a) 71 (d) 72 (b) 73 (a) 74 (c) 75 (b) 76 (c) 77 (a) 78 (d) 79 (a) 80 (a) 81 (d) 82 (b) 83 (a) 84 (c) 85 (d) 86 (c) 87 (a) 88 (c) 89 (a) 90 (c) 91 (d) 92 (d) 93 (a) 94 (a) 95 (c) 96 (d) 97 (a) 98 (b) 99 (d) 100 (a)