- 1 Consider the following statements :
1. Geographic segmentation is based on climate, region and population density.
2. Demographic segmentation includes factors like income, age and education.
3. Psychographic segmentation deals with attitudes, interests and lifestyles.
4. Behavioural segmentation ignores consumer usage patterns and brand loyalty.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 2 Consider the following statements :
1. Sales are highest during the growth stage.
2. The introduction stage involves high marketing and R & D costs.
3. The maturity stage may lead to saturation and price wars.
4. The decline stage often sees an increase in promotional activities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 3 Consider the following statements :
1. SEO aims to improve a websites ranking in organic search results.
2. Content marketing focuses on paid advertisements.
3. Email marketing can be used for personalized communication.
4. Social media marketing enables two-way interaction with customers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Market segmentation enables marketers to tailor their strategies to specific group of consumers.
Statement II : Undifferentiated marketing focuses on customizing messages for each segment separately.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 5 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Product positioning helps in creating a unique image of a product in the consumers mind.
Statement II : A strong product positioning strategy requires clarity, consistency and credibility.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 6 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In B2B marketing the buying process is often emotional and spontaneous.
Statement II : In B2C marketing, brand personality plays a major role in influencing consumer choice.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 7 Consider the following statements :
1. Brand equity refers to the value added by the brand to a product.
2. Brand loyalty results in consistent consumer repurchase behaviour.
3. Brand repositioning is used to reinforce an already strong market image.
How many of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 8 Consider the following pairs :
1. Geographic Segmentation: Based on age, gender, income
2. Demographic Segmentation: Based on population density and climate
3. Psychographic Segmentation: Based on lifestyle and personality traits
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 9 Consider the following pairs :
1. Product : Features, quality, design
2. Place : Warehousing, transportation
3. Promotion: Pricing decisions
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched ?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 10 Consider the following statements :
1. FDI in India has come by FIPB Route.
2. FDI has come by RBI Automatic Route.
3. Foreign Portfolio Investment did not have ADR.
4. Foreign external assistance consists of Grants and Loans.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 11 Consider the following statements :
1. Brettanwoods Conference was held in 1944.
2. Russia did not sign on the 1995 WTO agreement.
3. WTO has its Headquarters in New York.
4. WTO agreements consist of IPR.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 12 Consider the following statements :
1. Department of Disinvestment was set up as a separate Department in 1999.
2. It was renamed as Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM) from 14th April, 2006.
3. Department of Disinvestment is one of the Departments under the Ministry of Finance in 2002.
4. Hindu rate of growth was coined by Professor Rajkrishna, an Indian economist, in 1978.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 13 Consider the following statements :
1. WTO-Generally forbids the use of quantitative restriction in trade.
2. IMF-Provides finance to correct disequilibrium in balance of payments.
3. SAARC-Promotes trade among South Asian countries.
4. ASEAN – is an Economic Organization of all Asian nations.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 14 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Micro environmental factors are more intimately linked with a company than macro factors.
Statement II : The external environment consists of both micro and macro environment.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 15 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: In pre-1991 situation entry of large firms was not subject to MRTP Act restrictions.
Statement II: In post-1991 situation no MRTP Act restricts the growth of any industry.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II are false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 16 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The promotional role of a government encompasses the provision of various fiscal, monetary and other incentives.
Statement II : In many economies the state does not play the role of an entrepreneur.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 17 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Social audit evaluates the economic dimensions of the performance of a company.
Statement II: Social audit decreases the public visibility of an organization.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 18 Consider the following statements :
1. The target cost is a product cost estimated by subtracting a desired profit margin from a competitive market price.
2. Target costing is a bottom up approach.
3. Conventional costing and pricing methods can be described as bottom up in their approach.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 19 Consider the following pairs :
1. Privatisation: Franchising
2. New Economic policy : Structural adjustment policy
3. VAT is imposed : On all stages of production up to the final sale
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 20 Consider the following statements about Business Economics :
1. It is normative as well as positive in nature.
2. It ignores the practical application of economic concepts.
3. It deals with decision-making under uncertainty.
4. It focuses solely on macroeconomic issues.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 21 Consider the following statements :
1. Law of demand shows an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded.
2. It assumes that income and tastes remain constant.
3. Giffen goods are an exception to the law of demand.
4. Law of demand doesn’t apply to necessities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 22 Consider the following statements :
1. AR = MR in perfect competition.
2. MR falls faster than AR under monopoly.
3. When MR is negative, TR is rising.
4. AR is always greater than MR in imperfect competition.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 23 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Business economics is both normative and positive in nature.
Statement II: Business economics solely concerns public sector enterprises.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 24 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Marginal utility increases with each additional unit consumed.
Statement II: Indifference curves that are farther from the origin represent higher levels of utility.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 25 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: The law of variable proportions operates in the long run where all inputs can vary.
Statement II: The marginal product of a variable input eventually declines as more of it is used.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 26 Given below are two statements :
Statement I: Peak load pricing is suitable when demand fluctuates significantly by time of day or season.
Statement II: Penetration pricing involves setting a high initial price to skim the market.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 27 Consider the following pairs :
1. Profit Maximization: Long-term goal for all firms
2. Sales Maximization: Increases firm’s market share
3. Revenue Maximization: May not result in increased profits
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 28 Consider the following statements :
1. The IGST Act applies only to imports, not interstate supplies.
2. A composition dealer cannot claim Input Tax Credit (ITC).
3. The GST Council’s decisions are binding on both Central and State Governments.
4. The anti-profiteering clause mandates passing tax rate reduction benefits to consumers.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 29 Consider the following statements :
1. Information Technology Act, 2000 – Section 66A (punishing offensive messages) is still enforceable after the Shreya Singhal judgment.
2. Intermediaries are immune from liability only if they follow due diligence under Section 79 of Information Technology Act, 2000.
3. A digital signature under the Information Technology Act, 2000 must use asymmetric crypto-system and hash function.
4. The Adjudicating Officer can award compensation up to Rs.5 crore for data breaches under Information Technology Act, 2000.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 30 Consider the following statements :
1. A private company can issue sweat equity shares only after one year from commencement of business as per Companies Act, 2013.
2. A director can be held personally liable for fraudulent conduct under Section 447 of Companies Act, 2013.
3. The National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) has jurisdiction over oppression and mismanagement cases as per Companies Act, 2013.
4. A company cannot issue shares at a discount except under the sweat equity provisions as per Companies Act, 2013.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 31 Consider the following statements :
1. The doctrine of Caveat Emptor means “let the buyer beware” and places the responsibility of examining goods on the seller.
2. The Sale of Goods Act, 1930 provides exceptions to Caveat Emptor in cases of fraud or misrepresentation.
3. Under Caveat Emptor, the buyer has no remedy if the goods turn out to be defective.
4. The doctrine applies only in cases where the buyer explicitly waives their right to inspect the goods.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 32 Consider the following statements :
1. A promissory note must always be payable to order, not to bearer.
2. A cheque is a type of bill of exchange but is always payable on demand.
3. Negotiation of a negotiable instrument requires both endorsement and delivery.
4. A dishonoured negotiable instrument must be protested to hold the parties liable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 33 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The Chief Justice of India is exempt from the RTI Act – 2005.
Statement II : Personal information unrelated to public activity can be denied under Section 8(1)(j).
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 34 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The public key included in a digital signature is used to verify the signature and is part of a public-private key pair.
Statement II : The serial number in a digital signature is used to encrypt the private key of the signer.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 35 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : In an agreement to sell, the risk passes to the buyer immediately.
Statement II : The doctrine of Caveat Emptor applies only to latent defects.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 36 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Copyright protects expression, not ideas.
Statement II : Trademarks must be renewed after every 10 years.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 37 Consider the following pairs :
1. Doctrine of Frustration: Section 56 of Indian Contract Act-1872
2. Doctrine of Restitution: Section 65 of Indian Contract Act-1872
3. Doctrine of Privity: Section 2(d) of Indian Contract Act-1872
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 38 Consider the following pairs :
1. Section 241 : NCLT’s power to regulate share transfers
2. Section 244 : 10% shareholding for petition
3. Section 245 : Class action suits
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 39 Consider the following statements :
1. The financial system consists of institutions, instruments and markets.
2. The financial system provides services which are essential in a modern economy.
3. The financial system is a core factor of development and growth.
4. The financial system is possibly the most important institutional and functional vehicle for economic transformation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 40 Consider the following statements :
1. Financial markets in every economy are having two segments.
2. These segments are known as Money Market and Capital Market.
3. Money markets deal in short term funds and Capital Markets deal in long term funds.
4. Money markets fulfill the requirement of funds for the period up to 364 days while the capital market does the same for above 364 days.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 41 Consider the following statements :
1. The Regional Rural Banks were set up on 2nd October, 1995.
2. Regional Rural Banks provide credit to the weaker sections of the society at a concessional rate of interest.
3. The Regional Rural Banks mobilize rural savings and channelize them for supporting productive activities in rural areas.
4. The Regional Rural Banks are refinanced by the Reserve Bank of India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 42 Consider the following statements :
1. There is a statutory provision that a company starting banking business in India has to obtain licence from the Reserve Bank of India
2. The Reserve Bank of India exercises its control over expansion of branches by the banks through the branch licensing policy.
3. The Reserve Bank of India is empowered to conduct the inspection of banks.
4. Reserve Bank of India is empowered to collect credit related information from the banks.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 43 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The money market forms the first and foremost link in the transmission of monetary policy impulses to the real economy.
Statement II : Call Money, Treasury Bills, Certificate of deposits and Commercial papers are important instruments of money market.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 44 Consider the following pairs :
1. Greenshoe option: Company selling shares for the first time allowed to sell additional shares to the public.
2. Penny Stocks : Shares which remain low-priced at a stock exchange for a comparatively longer period.
3. Participatory Notes : Derivative instrument issued in a foreign jurisdiction by a SEBI registered Foreign Institutional Investor.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 45 Consider the following pairs :
1. Regional Rural Banks : Established in 1975
2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development : Established in 1982
3. Small Industries Development Bank of India : Established in 1990
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 46 Consider the following pairs :
1. Merchant Banks: Loan Syndication
2. Factoring : Working Capital Finance
3. Venture Capital: Micro Business Finance
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 47 Consider the following pairs :
1. Nachiket Mor Committee : Committee on Comprehensive Financial Services for Small Businesses and Low-Income Households
2. P. J. Nayak Committee: Governance of Public Sector Banks
3. Raghuram Rajan Committee : Financial Sector Reforms
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 48 Consider the following pairs :
1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (Amendment) Act : Year 2021
2. Banning of Unregulated Deposits Scheme Act : Year 2019
3. Payment and Settlement System Act : Year 2007
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 49 Consider the following pairs :
1. Securities and Exchanges Board of India: Established in 1992
2. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India: Established in 1999
3. The Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority (PFRDA): Established in 2003
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 50 Consider the following statements :
1. HRM practices must be implemented effectively to yield performance outcomes.
2. External economic shocks generally weaken HRM-Performance links.
3. Bundled HRM practices create a synergistic effect.
4. Financial incentives alone are sufficient to drive employee engagement.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 51 Consider the following statements :
1. Herzberg’s theory includes hygiene and motivator factors.
2. Maslow’s theory ends at self-esteem needs.
3. Theory X assumes workers are self-directed.
4. McClelland focused on power, achievement and affiliation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 52 Consider the following statements :
1. Organisational change requires leadership commitment.
2. Change resistance is always irrational.
3. Organisational development involves planned interventions.
4. Change should be imposed without consultation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 53 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Intrinsic motivation comes from within the individual.
Statement II : Herzbergs theory includes intrinsic and hygiene factors.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 54 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Informal communication can affect organisational decisions.
Statement II : Formal organisations evolve spontaneously.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 55 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Organisational culture never changes.
Statement II : Organisational development is about planned change.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 56 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Compensation includes only basic salary.
Statement II : Fringe benefits are part of total compensation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 57 Consider the following statements :
1. Group thinking improves decision-making.
2. Group dynamics affect team performance.
3. Power and politics are irrelevant in group decisions.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 58 Consider the following pairs :
1. Maslow : Hierarchy of Needs
2. Herzberg : Two Factor Theory
3. McGregor : Theory Z
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 59 Consider the following pairs :
1. BARS: Behavior-based appraisal
2. 360 Appraisal: Only superior feedback
3. MBO : Goal setting and feedback
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 60 Consider the following pairs :
1. Cognitive Conflict : Enhances decision making
2. Affective Conflict : Based on personal differences
3. Negotiation : Avoiding all conflict
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 61 Consider the following pairs :
1. Distress : Always negative for performance
2. Eustress : Positive, motivating stress
3. Burnout : Result of prolonged job stress
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 62 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Bayes’ theorem is primarily used to calculate the prior probability of an event.
Statement II : In medical diagnostics, Bayes’ theorem can be applied to update the probability of having a disease given a positive test result.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 63 Consider the following statements :
1. In a perfectly symmetrical distribution, the coefficient of skewness (e.g., Pearson’s or Fisher’s) will be zero.
2. A distribution with a long tail on the left side is considered positively skewed.
3. If the mean is less than the median, the distribution is likely negatively skewed.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 64 Consider the following pairs :
1. Larger sample size : Leads to a larger standard error
2. Smaller standard error : Indicates greater precision in the sample statistics as an estimate of the population parameter.
3. Increased variability in population : Results in a larger standard error of the mean for a fixed sample size.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 65 Consider the following pairs about Central Limit Theorem (CLT) :
1. CLT Condition : Applicable only if the population distribution is normal
2. CLT Outcome : States that the sampling distribution of the sample mean will not be normal
3. CLT Sample Size: Generally considered ‘sufficiently large’ when n ≥ 10 for most practical purposes.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 66 Consider the following statements regarding Type I and Type II errors :
1. A Type I error occurs when the researcher rejects a true null hypothesis.
2. The probability of committing a Type II error is denoted by ∝ (alpha)
3. Increasing the significance level (∝) while keeping other factors constant will decrease the probability of a Type II error (ß)
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 67 Consider the following pairs :
1. R2 : Proportion of variance explained by the model
2. Slope : Change in Y for per unit change in X
3. Residual : Difference between observed X and predicted X
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 68 Consider the following pairs :
1. Mann-Whitney U : Assumes ordinal or continuous data
2. Kruskal-Wallis H : Requires normal distribution of data
3. Spearmans rho : Measures monotonic relationship between two variables
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 69 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The normal distribution is a discrete probability distribution.
Statement II : The central limit theorem states that the distribution of sample means approaches a normal distribution as the sample size increases, regardless of the shape of the population distribution.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 70 Consider the following statements :
1. Operating lease transfers substantially all risks and rewards of ownership to the lessee.
2. Finance lease is typically non-cancellable and covers most of the economic life of the asset.
3. Sale and leaseback arrangements help companies release capital tied up in assets.
4. Lease rentals are fully tax-deductible for the lessee in operating lease arrangements.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 71 Consider the following statements :
1. An investment of Rs.5,000 today will grow to Rs.7,347 in 5 years at a compound annual growth rate of 8%.
2. The present value of receiving Rs. 12,000 at the end of 3 years, discounted at 15% per annum, is Rs. 7,890.
3. A company has 30% debt financing at 8% cost and 70% equity financing at 12% cost. The company’s Weighted Average Cost of Capital (WACC) is 10.8%.
4. If you need Rs. 25,000 in the 4th Year and can invest at 6% annual interest rate, you should Rs. 19,802 today.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 72 Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Modigliani-Miller theorem (without taxes), the value of a firm is independent on its capital structure.
2. A company’s equity multiplier can be calculated as Total Assets divided by Total Equity.
3. Financial leverage always increases the Earnings Per Share (EPS) of a company regardless of the level of Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT).
4. The degree of financial leverage measures the percentage change in net income relative to the percentage change in Earnings Before Interest and Taxes (EBIT).
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 73 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : A company has total assets of Rs. 10,00,000, equity capital of Rs.6,00,000, and retained earnings of Rs. 1,00,000. The debt-to-equity ratio of the company is 0.43.
Statement II : If a company’s total capitalization is Rs. 15,00,000 with debt comprising 40% of the total capital structure, then the equity portion amounts to Rs. 9,00,000.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 74 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The Internal Rate of Return (IRR) method may give conflicting results when comparing mutually exclusive projects because it assumes reinvestment of cash flows at the IRR rate itself.
Statement II : The Net Present Value (NPV) method is considered superior to the Payback Period method because NPV considers the time value of money and evaluates the profitability of the entire project life.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 75 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : The conservative approach to working capital management involves maintaining high levels of current assets to ensure liquidity, even though it may reduce profitability.
Statement II : According to Gordon’s dividend theory, investors always prefer lower dividend payouts because retained earnings increase the market value of the firm.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 76 Consider the following statements :
1. The risk-return trade-off states that investments with higher risk are generally expected to offer higher potential returns, while lower-risk investments typically provide lower returns.
2. Diversification is a strategy used to reduce the overall risk of a portfolio by investing in a variety of assets, thereby minimizing the impact if one investment performs poorly.
3. Standard deviation is commonly used as a measure of expected return in risk and return analysis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 77 Consider the following statements :
1. Under a floating exchange rate system, the value of a country’s currency is determined by market forces without direct government or central bank intervention.
2. The gold standard required countries to maintain reserves of gold to back their currency values.
3. The International Monetary Fund (IMF) was established after World War II to provide long-term development loans to member countries.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 78 Consider the following pairs :
1. Transaction Risk: Exchange rate fluctuations affecting transactions
2. Translation Risk: Consolidating foreign statements currency conversion
3. Economic Risk : Exchange rates affecting future cash flows
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 79 Consider the following pairs :
1. LIBOR : Interbank lending benchmark interest rate
2. Foreign Exchange Swap : Simultaneous currency trades on different dates
3. Eurobond : Domestic currency bond sold domestically
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 80 Consider the following pairs :
1. Hedging : Offsetting positions reducing financial risk
2. Arbitrage : Simultaneous trading exploiting price differences
3. Speculation: Investment strategy minimizing risk completely
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 81 Consider the following statements :
1. Agricultural income is fully exempt from tax in India.
2. If an assessee has both agricultural and non-agricultural income, partial integration is done.
3. Agricultural income earned outside India is taxable for residents.
4. Agricultural income includes income from poultry farming.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 82 Consider the following statements :
1. Deduction under Section 80G is for donation to political parties.
2. Deduction under Section 80D is for health insurance.
3. Deduction under Section 80C is for LIC premiums.
4. Deduction under Section 10(10D) is for life insurance maturity amount.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 83 Consider the following statements about Corporate Tax Planning :
1. Tax evasion is a part of tax planning.
2. Make-or-buy decisions may consider tax impact.
3. Tax avoidance is always illegal.
4. Lease vs buy is unrelated to tax saving.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 84 Consider the following statements :
1. Income from asset transferred to spouse without consideration is clubbed.
2. Clubbing doesn’t apply if transfer is before marriage.
3. Income from self-acquired property gifted to HUF is clubbed.
4. Income of major son is clubbed.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 85 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Surcharge is levied over and above the income tax based on specified income thresholds.
Statement II : Cess is calculated on income before computing tax.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 86 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Advance tax is applicable only to companies.
Statement II : Self-employed individuals are liable to pay advance tax if their tax liability exceeds Rs. 10,000.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 87 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Form 26AS shows TDS deducted and advance tax paid.
Statement II : Form 10E is used for claiming deduction under section 80GG.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 88 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Transfer pricing regulations are applicable only to import-export transactions between unrelated parties.
Statement II : Advance Pricing Agreements (APAs) can be applied only after tax assessment is completed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 89 Consider the following statements :
1. Tax avoidance and tax evasion are legally permissible.
2. Own or lease decisions may impact depreciation.
3. Tax planning is about exploiting legal loopholes.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 90 Consider the following statements :
1. Leasing reduces taxable income because lease rentals are fully deductible.
2. Depreciation benefit is available only if the asset is owned by the assessee.
3. Lease option is always better when tax rate is lower.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 91 Consider the following pairs :
1. Section 80 C : Tuition fees for children
2. Section 80 D : Medical insurance premium
3. Section 80 G : Donation to charitable trusts
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 92 Consider the following pairs :
1. Form 16 : TDS Certificate (salary)
2. Form 26AS : Tax Credit Statement
3. Form 15G : Return for presumptive income
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 93 Consider the following statements :
1. According to the Principle of Consistency the transactions should be accounted for on a consistent basis within an accounting period only.
2. According to the Principle of Consistency transactions should be accounted for on a consistent basis from one accounting period to another.
3. According to the Principle of Consistency, transactions relating to the statement of financial position only should be accounted for on a consistent basis.
4. According to the Principle of Consistency transactions should be accounted for on a consistent basis, both within an accounting period, and from one accounting period to another.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 94 Consider the following statements :
1. The principal objective of the IFRS Foundation is to develop a set of high quality, understandable, enforceable and globally accepted financial reporting standards.
2. The principal objective of the IFRS Foundation is to develop standards for a global baseline of sustainability disclosures.
3. The principal objective of the IFRS Foundation is to enable companies to provide comprehensive sustainability information to global capital markets.
4. The principal objective of the IFRS Foundation is to take account of the financial reporting needs of emerging economies and small and medium sized entities.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 95 Consider the following statements :
1. At the time of admission of a partner, the old partners share the goodwill equally brought in by the new partner.
2. Goodwill is valued whenever there is change in the profit sharing ratio among the partners.
3. Normal profit depends upon Normal Rate of Return and past profits of the Firm.
4. Goodwill is an intangible asset therefore it cannot be valued in the books of the Firm.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) Only three statements
(d) All four statements
(e) Question not attempted - 96 Given below are two statements :
Statement I : One aspect of Cost Audit is propriety audit in which Audit of Executive Action and Plans bearing on the finance and expenditure of the company are included.
Statement II : One aspect of Cost Audit is efficiency audit that ensures the application of basic economic principle that the resources will flow into the most remunerative channels.
In the light of the above statements, choose the Correct answer from the options given below
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(e) Question not attempted - 97 Consider the following statements :
1. Environmental cost includes contingent cost which may arise due to possible liability under environmental laws.
2. Environmental cost includes waste management cost.
3. Depreciation and valuation of natural resources are covered under Corporate Environmental Accounting.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 98 Consider the following statements :
1. Vouching aims at authentication of the accuracy and the truth of book entries.
2. Vouching aims at the correct valuation of the Assets and Liabilities of Business.
3. Vouching aims at the correct presentation of the Assets and Liabilities in conformation with the requirements of the relevant rules and laws.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
(a) Only one statement
(b) Only two statements
(c) All three statements
(d) None
(e) Question not attempted - 99 Consider the following pairs :
1. Reconstruction account is either debited or credited for : Cancellation of arrears of preference shares dividend.
2. As per AS 14, in case of amalgamation in the nature of merger: The debentures issue by the transferee company to the preference shareholders of the transferor company do not form part of purchase consideration.
3. Internal Reconstruction can be done: Only in case of companies incurring losses.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted - 100 Consider the following pairs :
1. Kaizen Costing is applied before production starts : Target Costing is applied after product design is finalized.
2. Kaizen Costing focuses on continuous cost reduction : Target Costing focuses on designing to meet cost targets.
3. Kaizen Costing aims at process and operational improvements : Target Costing aims at cost planning and design stage control.
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None of the pairs
(e) Question not attempted
