Gujarat 2016 September Commerce – Paper III

  1. Michael Porter’s well known model in the area of business environment is known as……
    (a) A model of structure analysis of industries
    (b) A model of economic analysis
    (c) A model of legal analysis
    (d) A model of transformation
  2. Which of the following statements about economic policies is not correct?
    (a) Trade policy is often not integrated with the industrial policy
    (b) Industrial policy defines the scope and role of different sectors
    (c) Foreign exchange rate policy is based on liberalization
    (d) Fiscal policy affects the development of various regions and sectors
  3. Read the following statements carefully:
    Statements (i) : The planning system is an important part of business environment.
    Statements (ii) : The direction of development pattern is determined by the five year plans.
    Now select the correct answer about these two statements:
    (a) Statements i is true, ii is false
    (b) Statements i is false, ii is true
    (c) Statements i and ii are correct
    (d) Statements i and ii are incorrect
  4. A kind of practice that involves over invoicing or under invoicing of intermediate goods (or inputs) between foreign affiliated is called:
    (a) Fixed price strategy
    (b) Tender price policy
    (c) Temporal price policy
    (d) Transfer pricing policy
  5. Which one of the following is not the driver of globalization?
    (a) Higher trade barriers and more population stability
    (b) Foreign direct investment
    (c) Foreign institutional investment
    (d) Technological advances
  6. The going concern concept refers to a presumption that:
    (a) The entity will be profitable in the coming year
    (b) The entity will continue to operate in the foreseeable future
    (c) The entity will not be involved in a year within a year
    (d) The top management of the entity will remain same for the foreseeable future
  7. Expenses incurred in the installation of a machinery is a type of:
    (a) Revenue expenditure
    (b) Capital expenditure
    (c) Deferred revenue expenditure
    (d) Operating expense
  8. A and B are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio of 5:3. They admitted C and agreed to give him 3/10 of profits. What is the new ratio after C’s admission?
    (a) 35 : 42 : 17
    (b) 35 : 21 : 24
    (c) 49 : 22 : 29
    (d) 34 : 20 : 12
  9. A trade creditor would be interested in:
    (a) Debt equity ratio
    (b) Net profit ratio
    (c) Acid test ratio
    (d) RoI
  10. The margin of safety can be defined as:
    (a) The excess of actual sales over actual variable expenses
    (b) The excess of actual sales over actual Fixed expenses
    (c) The excess of actual sales over break – even expenses
    (d) The excess of budgeted net income over actual net income
  11. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Business Economics?
    (a) Economic of the firm
    (b) Both Science and Art
    (c) Decision making at managerial level
    (d) Firm and industry are synonym
  12. If AR is average revenue, MR the marginal revenue an e the price elasticity of demand, then which of the following is correct?
    (a) AR/MR = e
    (b) MR/AR = e
    (c) MR = AR (1-1/e)
    (d) AR = MR (1-1/e)
  13. Which of the following is not the basic assumption of cardinal utility analysis?
    (a) Rationality of consumer
    (b) Utility is cardinally measurable
    (c) Diminishing marginal utility of money
    (d) Hypothesis of independent utilities
  14. Peak load pricing can be used for:
    (a) Transport
    (b) Electricity
    (c) Drinking water
    (d) Both a and b but not c
  15. Incrementalism is a concept of:
    (a) Short run
    (b) Long run
    (c) Market period
    (d) Very short period
  16. Parametric data can be obtained by using:
    (a) Nominal scale and interval scale
    (b) Ordinal scale and ratio scale
    (c) Nominal scale and ordinal scale
    (d) Interval scale and ratio scale
  17. When data are classified on the basis of descriptive characteristics or on the basis of attributes, the classification is called:
    (a) Chronological Classification
    (b) Qualitative classification
    (c) Quantitative classification
    (d) Spatial classification
  18. Find out the correct match between the items of the following:
    List I List II
    (a) Probability of a true null hyposis being rejected by a test (i) Chi square test
    (b) Standard deviation of sampling distribution of mean  (II) t-test a
    (c) Comparing average performance of items belonging to more than two sample groups simultaneously (III) ANOVA
    (d) Testing the significance of the association between two attributes  (IV) standard error of mean
    (v) Level of significance

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, iii, iv, v
    (b) v, iv, iii, i
    (c) iv, iii, ii, i
    (d) iv, v, ii, iii

  19. If the regression coefficients byx and bxy are 0.80 and 0.45 respectively. the value of the coefficient of correlation will be:
    (a) 0.36
    (b) 0.60
    (c) 0.06
    (d) 0.56
  20. Processing involves:
    (a) Inputting data into a computer system
    (b) Transforming input into output
    (c) Displaying output in a useful manner
    (d) Providing relevant answer
  21. Match the following:
    (a) Philosophy of management  (i) Oliver sheldon
    (b) Scientific management (II) Peter F.Drucker
    (c) General and industrial management (III) F.W. Taylor
    (d) The practice of management  (IV) Henry Fayol

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, iii, iv, ii
    (b) i, ii, iii, iv
    (c) iv, iii, ii, i
    (d) iii, iv, i, ii

  22. The appointment of independent directors is a part of corporate governance as per the:
    (a) RBI
    (b) Indian Companies Act
    (c) Government of India
    (d) SEBI
  23. Organisational structure primarily refers to:
    (a) How resources are allocated
    (b) How activities are co-ordinated and controlled
    (c) The location of departments and office space
    (d) The policy statements developed by the firm
  24. The definition of communication implies that:
    (a) Communication is mostly verbal
    (b) Communication is in a vertical direction
    (c) Most communication is in a vertical direction
    (d) Understanding must occur to have communication
  25. Arranging in an order from lowest to highest, what are Maslow’s five classes of needs?
    (a) Social Esteem – Physiological – Safety – Self – actualization
    (b) Physiological – Safety- Social– actualization- Esteem
    (c) Physiological – Safety- Social– Esteem – Self – actualization
    (d) Self – actualization– Esteem – Safety- Social– Physiological
  26. Which of the demographic variables is not used by marketers for demographic segmentation?
    (a) Age
    (b) Occupation
    (c) Poverty
    (d) Gender
  27. If a company uses its company name for its entire range of products offered , then it is called:
    (a) Private branding
    (b) Product live branding
    (c) Specific product branding
    (d) Corporate branding
  28. At which stage of the new product development, the launching of new product will take place:
    (a) Business Analysis
    (b) Test Marketing
    (c) Marketing strategy Development
    (d) Commercialization
  29. Who defines advertising as “any paid form of non-personal presentation and promotion of ideas, goods and services by an identified sponsor?”
    (a) Philip Kotter
    (b) C.K.Prahalad
    (c) Chartered Institute of Marketing
    (d) American Marketing Association
  30. ……… contributes to the atmosphere of a service organization.
    (a) Brand
    (b) Capacity planning
    (c) Physical evidence
    (d) Packaging
  31. The variability of EPS caused by the use of financial leverage is called:
    (a) Operating Risk
    (b) External Risk
    (c) Financial Risk
    (d) Internal Risk
  32. The returns foregone in the next best investment option is called:
    (a) Sunk cost
    (b) Marginal cost
    (c) Opportunity cost
    (d) Foregone cost
  33. In case where the available funds for investment are lower than the acceptable investment (after applying the appraisal criteria) the suitable additional appraisal criteria, for final decision-making will be:
    (a) NPV
    (b) Payback
    (c) ARR
    (d) Profitability index
  34. The working capital requirements of the company even at the lowest level of its sales cycle is called:
    (a) Gross working capital
    (b) Permanent working capital
    (c) Net working capital
    (d) Fluctuating working capital
  35. According to Walter model a firm should have 100% dividend payout ratio when:
    (a) r = ke
    (b) r < ke (c) R > ke
    (d) None of the above
  36. Which among the following is odd one?
    (a) AITUC
    (b) INTUC
    (c) FICCI
    (d)CITU
  37. The ultimate purpose is to relate human resources to future enterprise needs, so as to maximize the future return on investment in human resources, It is referred as:
    (a) Demand and supply
    (b) Forecasting
    (c) Human Resource Planning
    (d) Human Resource Development
  38. The two factor theory was propounded by:
    (a) Fredrick Herzberg
    (b) A.H. Maslow
    (c) Mc Gragor
    (d) Elton Mayo
  39. Which of the following is not a fundamental objective of industrial relations?
    (a) To avoid industrial conflicts and their consequences
    (b) To extend and maintain industrial democracy
    (c) To improve workers strength through union bursting devices
    (d) To enhance the economic status of the workers
  40. Micro small and medium enterprises development Act, 2006 is related to:
    (a) Industrial Policy
    (b) Investment Limit
    (c) Business Opportunities
    (d) None of the above
  41. The most Significant recommendation of the first Narasimham Committee relating to private banks was related to:
    (a) Entry
    (b) Expansion
    (c) Merger
    (d) Branch Network
  42. It refers to the advice given by the Reserve Bank of India to commercial banks in respect of banks lending and other operations:
    (a) Bank rate
    (b) Open market operations
    (c) Moral suasion
    (d) Repo rate
  43. Which of the following is the correct order by increasing level of risks and loss if
    P = Loss Asset; Q = Default Asset; R= Standard Asset; S = Non- performing Asset.
    (a) P, Q, R, S
    (b) Q, R, S, P
    (c) R, S, P, Q
    (d) R, Q, P, S
  44. Which of the following is not a trading block?
    (a) NAFTA
    (b) ASEAN
    (c) SAARC
    (d) IMF
  45. Parent company and holding company words may be used in which type of banking?
    (a) Group Banking
    (b) Central Banking
    (c) Chain Banking
    (d) Correspondent Banking
  46. Each member of International Monetary Fund (IMF) is assigned a quota expressed in:
    (a) Member Country’s Currency
    (b) US Dollar
    (c) Special Drawing Right
    (d) None of the above
  47. A tariff on an imported good levied by the importing country to counter the impact of foreign subsidies is known as:
    (a) Countervailing duty
    (b) Quota
    (c) Voluntary export restraint
    (d) Excise Duty
  48. The number of subordinates a superior can effectively handle is called:
    (a) Organizing people
    (b) Span of control
    (c) Direction
    (d) Coordination
  49. Demand for foreign currency is determined by:
    (a) Volume of domestic exports
    (b) Volume of domestic imports
    (c) Value of domestic exports
    (d) Value f domestic imports
  50. Which of the following is not a part of the structure of WTO?
    (a) Trade Policy Body
    (b) General Council
    (c) General Assembly
    (d) Dispute settlement body
  51. As per AS-23, which of the following accounting methods is adopted in accounting of an associate company in the consolidated financial statements?
    (a) Cost method
    (b) Equity method
    (c) Amortized cost method
    (d) None of the above
  52. Which method of human resource accounting is generally followed by the companies in India?
    (a) Historical cost method
    (b) Lew and Schwartz method
    (c) Opportunity cost method
    (d) Replacement cost method
  53. Institution having an important role in DEMAT set up is:
    (a) Stock Exchanges
    (b) National Securities depository limited
    (c) Stock Brokers
    (d) Reserve Bank of India
  54. Horizontal merger refers to the merger of firms dealing in:
    (a) Different products/services
    (b) Similar products / services
    (c) Unrelated businesses
    (d) Activities of value chain
  55. Venture capital fund cannot invest more than……(%) of ……..in one venture capital undertaking.
    (a) 25, corpus of funds
    (b) 75, investible funds
    (c) 25, capital issued
    (d) 50, corpus of funds
  56. It is the type of market that describes a cluster of complementary products and services that are closely related in the minds of consumers but are spread across diverse set of industries is:
    (a) Market space
    (b) Meta market
    (c) Market place
    (d) Mega market
  57. It makes sense when good opportunities exist outside the present business described as:
    (a) Intensive growth
    (b) Integrative growth
    (c) Diversification growth
    (d) Internal growth
  58. A firm attempts to serve all customer groups with all the products their might need refer to:
    (a) Single segment concentration
    (b) Multiple segment concentration
    (c) Multiple segment specialization
    (d) Full market coverage
  59. The most effective sales promotion scheme to consumer to use in the product information is:
    (a) Demonstration
    (b) Push money
    (c) Samples
    (d) Coupons
  60. The words, symbols or marks that are legally registered by a company is called:
    (a) Brand
    (b) Agmark
    (c) Trademark
    (d) Hallmark
  61. The deiphi technique uses:
    (a) Mathematical models as input to the decision making process
    (b) A panel of exports making a series of independent decisions
    (c) A ‘top down’ approach
    (d) None of the above
  62. The Chart showing future employment needs for each type of job is called:
    (a) Human Resource forecast
    (b) Human Resource Information system
    (c) Trend analysis
    (d) Staffing table
  63. “The introduction of advanced technology tends to reduce the number of jobs that require considerable skills”. This transformation is referred to as:
    (a) “Touch labour” to knowledge workers
    (b) “Touch labour’ to touch workers
    (c) “Untouch labour’ to touch workers
    (d) “Untouch labour’ to knowledge workers
  64. Which of the following terms is related to the process of identify, developing and tracking key for an individuals executive positions?
    (a) Skill Inventories
    (b) Succession Planning
    (c) Trend Analysis
    (d) Human Resource Audit
  65. Recruitment is concerned with:
    (a) Selecting the right candidate
    (b) Developing a pool of job candidates
    (c) Getting applications
    (d) None of the above
  66. Direct investment in a joint venture abroad cab be made by an Indian party without ceiling on limit under automatic route if the investment is made form:
    (a) Balances in EEFC account
    (b) Funds raised through ADR/GDR
    (c) Balances in EEFC account or funds raised through ADR/GDR
    (d)There is no such provision
  67. The relationship between the general council and dispute settlement body is:
    (a) Dispute settlement body reports to General council
    (b) Both report to ministerial council
    (c) Both have trade policy review body as the appellate body
    (d) Both are same, functioning differently
  68. According to purchasing power parity theory exchange rates are determined by:
    (a) Inflation rates
    (b) Interest rates
    (c) Relative prices
    (d) Demand and supply
  69. Which of the following is not a member of NAFTA:
    (a) USA
    (b) CANADA
    (c) MEXICO
    (d)SPAIN
  70. Which is the basic form of innovation ?
    (a) Introduction of novel production process
    (b) Improvement of existing process
    (c) Development of existing firm
    (d) All of the above
  71. Income which accrues outside Indian from a business controlled from India is taxable in case of:
    (a) Resident only
    (b) Not ordinarily resident only
    (c) Both ordinarily resident and NOR
    (d) Non – resident
  72. For the purpose of deductibility U/S 35D of the Income tax Act for Xavier Ltd. preliminary expenses cannot exceed:
    (a) 20.5% of the project cost
    (b) 5% of the project cost
    (c) 5% of the capital employed
    (d) Higher of b and c
  73. Which one of the following is a ‘transfer’ for computation of capital gains?
    (a) Distribute of asset on dissolution of partnership firm
    (b) Distribute of asset on partition of HUF
    (c) Distribute of asset on liquidation of a company
    (d) None of the above
  74. Which one of the following is not an ‘income’ under the provisions of the income-tax ACT, 1961?
    (a) Extra money received on account of devaluation of foreign currency
    (b) Illegal income
    (c) Dividend
    (d) Pin money
  75. Match the following:
    (a) Tax Evasion (i) Art of loading tax without actually breaking the law
    (b) Tax Avoidance (ii) Taj group of hotels opening a hotel in the world heritage centre
    (c) Tax Planning (iii) Making suitable arrangement for TDS
    (d) Tax Administration  (iv) Understatement of income

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, ii, iii, iv
    (b) ii, iii, iv, i
    (c) iv, i, ii, iii
    (d) iii, iv, i, ii

    Answer Key

    1 (a) 2 (a) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5 (a) 6 (b) 7 (b) 8 (b) 9 (c) 10 (c) 11 (d) 12 (c) 13 (c) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (d) 17 (b) 18 (b) 19 (b) 20 (b) 21 (a) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (d) 25 (c) 26 (c) 27 (d) 28 (d) 29 (d) 30 (c) 31 (c) 32 (c) 33 (d) 34 (b) 35 (b) 36 (c) 37 (c) 38 (a) 39 (c) 40 (b) 41 (a) 42 (c) 43 (d) 44 (d) 45 (a) 46 (c) 47 (a) 48 (b) 49 (d) 50 (c) 51 (b) 52 (b) 53 (b) 54 (b) 55 (a) 56 (b) 57 (c) 58 (d) 59 (c) 60 (c) 61 (b) 62 (d) 63 (a) 64 (b) 65 (b) 66 (c) 67 (d) 68 (c) 69 (d) 70 (d) 71 (c) 72 (d) 73 (a) 74 (d) 75 (c)