Gujarat 2014 October Commerce – Paper III

  1. One element of the following items is not related with consumer Right:
    (a) Right against exploitation by unfair trade practices
    (b) Right to a physical environment enhancing quality of life
    (c) Right to express
    (d) Right to choose the best from the variety of offers
  2. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I  List II
    (a) Privatisation (i) Agricultural Price Policy
    (b) Open market  (ii) Phasing out trade barriers
    (c) Minimum Support Price (iii) Purchase and sale of Govt.
    (d) Liberalisation (iv) Encourages entrepreneurship

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, ii, iii, iv
    (b) ii, iii, iv, i
    (c) iii, i, ii, iv
    (d) iv, iii, i, ii

  3. Assertion (A) : The structural Adjustment programme (SAP) has been forced on the economy
    Reason (R) : Excess of consumption and expenditure over the revenue resulting in heavy government borrowing
    (a) Reason given is not an appropriate explanation
    (b) (R) is one of the reasons for (A)
    (c) (A) and (R) not at all related
    (d) (R) is not appropriate measure for structural adjustment of the economy
  4. Drivers of globalization include:
    (a) Establishment of W.T.O.
    (b) Regional Integration
    (c) Private Law
    (d) Growth in FDI
    (e) Growth of MNCs
    Select the appropriate set of drivers:
    (a) a, e, c
    (b) a, b, d, e
    (c) b, c, d
    (d) a, c, d, e
  5. Which inventory issue pricing method assumes that the inventory units available for sale are homogeneous?
    (a) Specific identification method
    (b) Last – in , First – out method
    (c) First – in, First – out method
    (d) Weight age – average cost method
  6. The journal is called:
    (a) Day book
    (b) Book of Principle Entry
    (c) Book of Prime Entry
    (d) Book of Original Entry
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) b, c, d
    (b) a, c, iv
    (c) a, b, c
    (d) a, b, iv
  7. Cash flow statement is prepared for:
    (a) Determining the net working capital between two balance sheet dates
    (b) Determining the net fund between two balance sheet dates
    (c) Determining the net cash flow between two balance sheet dates
    (d) Determining the net operating profit between two balance sheet dates
  8. Marginal cost is also known as:
    (a) Period cost
    (b) Variable cost
    (c) Fixed cost
    (d) Absorption cost
  9. Margin of safety is the difference between___________
    (a) Marginal Revenue and Marginal Cost
    (b) Expected Sales and Actual Sales
    (c) Expected Sales and BEP Sales
    (d) Actual Sales and BEP Sales
  10. The elasticity of demand over the demand curve is:
    (a) Different at each point
    (b) Same on each point
    (c) Constant for each demand curve
    (d) Zero
  11. If for a firm the sunk cost of a machinery is Rs. 6 Crores, its opportunity cost would be:
    (a) Rs. 6 crores
    (b) More than Rs. 6 crores
    (c) Less than Rs. 6 crores
    (d) Zero
  12. A monopolist discriminates between two markets and charges Rs. 10 per unit in Market ‘A’ and Rs. 15 per unit in the market ‘B’ then price elasticity of demand is:
    (a) More elastic in Market ‘A’ and less elastic in Market ‘B’
    (b) More elastic in Market ‘B’ and less elastic in Market ‘A’
    (c) Equal elastic in Markets ‘A’ and ‘B’
    (d) Unit elastic in Market ‘A’ and perfectly inelastic in Market ‘B’
  13. In a monopoly market it was found that the price elasticity of demand was – 0.75. Then the monopoly power would be:
    (a) 1.33
    (b) 7.5
    (c) 1
    (d) 75
  14. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I List II
    (a) Different items having common characteristics are brought together (i) Quantitative classification
    (b) Systematic arrangement of statistical data in columns and rows  (ii) Qualitative classification
    (c) Classification of data as number of males and females in sample (iii) Tabulation of data
    (d) Classification of number of students according to height (iv) Classification of Data

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, ii, iii, iv
    (b) ii, i, iv, iii
    (c) iii, iv, i, ii
    (d) iv, iii, ii, i

  15. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I  List II
    (a) Lottery method of selection of sample (i) Multi stage sampling
    (b) Selecting sample from complete list and first item to be selected randomly and thereafter to be selected with evenly spaced interval  (ii) Simple random sampling
    (c) Sample to be selected from particular state of predetermined house holds (iii) Systematic random sampling

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, ii, iii
    (b) ii, iii, i
    (c) iii, i, ii
    (d) i, iii, ii

  16. Area under normal curve for
    (a) 99.73 % of area
    (b) 95.43% of area
    (c) 68.27% of area
    (d) 34% of area
  17. If in a regression line y = a + bx, where b is zero, than the regression line will:
    (a) Pass through the origin
    (b) Be parallel to X -axis
    (c) Be parallel to Y – axis
    (d) Have the same intersection point on X-axis as well as Y-axis
  18. Which one of the following software is used for research analysis?
    (a) SAP
    (b) ERP
    (c) SPSS
    (d) TALLY
  19. The main advantage of functional organization is:
    (a) Specialization
    (b) Simplicity
    (c) Expert advice
    (d) Experience
  20. Delegation of Authority is linked with:
    (a) Managerial planning
    (b) Management co-ordination
    (c) Management control
    (d) Scientific management
  21. Techniques of management control are useful in:
    (a) Selection of plant location
    (b) Identifying appropriate technology
    (c) Profit planning
    (d) Conducting shareholders’ meetings
  22. Motivational process and not the motivators as such is associated with the:
    (a) Need-hierarchy theory
    (b) Two-factors theory
    (c) ERG- theory
    (d) Expectancy theory
  23. Magazines an journals are suitable for advertising products of ________ types purchased by only a particular section of society.
    (a) Special
    (b) Specific
    (c) General
    (d) None of the above
  24. Role of Marketing has become vital because of changes and increased:
    (a) Technology
    (b) Competition
    (c) Both A and B
    (d) None of the above
  25. Informing the buyers of new brand and new packages is the_____.
    (a) Objective
    (b) Method
    (c) Application
    (d) None of the above
  26. Producers of garments often organize……………. shows to promote their products.
    (a) Charity
    (b) Orchestra
    (c) Fashion
    (d) Movie
  27. Salesman creates more…………….which makes planned and regular mass products possible.
    (a) Demand
    (b) Sales
    (c) Price
    (d) Consumer
  28. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I List II
    (a) Net Income approach (i) Ke is rising with increase in debt
    (b) Net operating income approach  (ii) ke and kd remain constant irrespective of proportion of debt
    (c) Traditional theory (iii) Arbitrage process
    (d) M.M. approach  (iv) Optimal capital structure

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) b, c, d, c
    (b) a, b, c, d
    (c) c, d, b, a
    (d) d, c, a, b

  29. According to CAPM the cost of equity is derived as:
    (a) Rm + (Rm – Rf) βj
    (b) Rf + (Rm – Rf) βj
    (c) Rm + Rfβj
    (d) Rf + Rfβj
  30. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I  List II
    (a) Pay-back method  (i) Shareholder wealth maximization is directly examined
    (b) NPV method  (ii) There can be more than one outcome even in single calculation
    (c) IRR method (iii) Useful in case of capital rationing
    (d) Profitability Index (iv) Useful in case where rate of technological obsolescence is fast

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) a, d, c, b
    (b) b, c, d, a
    (c) c, b, a, d
    (d) d, a, b, c

  31. In the Miller-Orr model of optimum cash balance, return point value is:
    (a) Inversely related to interest rate
    (b) Inversely related to holding cost
    (c) Inversely related to transaction cost
    (d) Inversely related to cash flow variance
  32. According to the Gordon model, the price of the share is dependent on:
    (a) Dividend pay-out ratio and earnings per share
    (b) The required rate of return by shareholders and expected rate of return on investment by firms
    (c) EPS at the end of the year, dividend pay –out ratio, rate of return required by shareholders and expected rate of return on investment by firms
    (d) Target pay –out ratio and EPS
  33. The Basket training method means:
    (a) Development of decision skilled
    (b) Development of resources
    (c) Development of production
    (d) Development of institute
  34. Which one of the following is not included under functions of human Resource Management ?
    (a) Planning
    (b) Organizing
    (c) Profitability
    (d) Recruitment
  35. “Rage Committee” is related to:
    (a) Individual differences in Indian industry
    (b) Working conditions in Indian industry
    (c) Social security in Indian industry
    (d) None of the above
  36. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I List II
    (a) E.F.L. Brech (i) Human behavior at work
    (b) Keith Davis (ii) Principles and practice of Management
    (c) Chester I.Barnard  (iii) The elements of administration
    (d) L.F. Urwick (iv) The functions of the executive

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) iv, iii, ii, i
    (b) i, ii, iii, iv
    (c) iv, i, iii, ii
    (d) ii, i, iv, iii

  37. The universal banking covers:
    (a) Banking across the globe
    (b) Banking for all the customers
    (c) Providing all banking services
    (d) Banking for universe
  38. NABARD is a:
    (a) Rural Bank
    (b) Refinancing Institution
    (c) Commercial Bank
    (d) Policy Making Bank
  39. The SARFESAL Act 2005 empowers banks to:
    (a) Increase NPAs
    (b) Offload NPAs on others
    (c) Recover NPAs
    (d) Dilute Assets
  40. Which of the following is not a source of funds for state financial corporations ?
    (a) Income from investment
    (b) Refinancing
    (c) International markets
    (d) Reserve Bank of India
  41. In terms of ‘GDP’ world’s largest free trade area is:
    (a) NAFTA
    (b) SARC
    (c) ASEAN
    (d) EU
  42. To join IFC, a country………,
    (a) Must first be a member of the WB
    (b) Have signed IFC’s AOA
    (c) Have deposited instrument of acceptance of the AOA
    (d) All of the above
  43. Which one of these is not an original founder member of “ASEAN”?
    (a) Indonesia
    (b) Malaysia
    (c) Korea
    (d) Singapore
  44. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I List II
    (a) Joint Venture  (i) It may exhaust resource
    (b) Foreign Trade  (ii) Unnecessary capital movement
    (c) Fixed Exchange Rate  (iii) The amount of profit potential are reduced
    (d) Flexible Exchange  (iv) Transient nature

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) iii, i, iv, ii
    (b) ii, i, iv, iii
    (c) iv, iii, ii, i
    (d) i, i, ii, iii, iv

  45. Product life cycle theory of “FDI” was propounded by…….
    (a) Adam Smith
    (b) Raymond Vernon
    (c) F.W. Taussig
    (d) Heckscher- Ohlin
  46. Which of the following is not basic function of Packaging ?
    (a) Protection
    (b) Performance
    (c) Production
    (d) Promotion
  47. Which of the following is not a party of buying behavior?
    (a) Influencer
    (b) User
    (c) Decider
    (d) Government
  48. The techniques of measuring life styles of consumers is called:
    (a) Demographics
    (b) Geographics
    (c) Psychographics
    (d) Photographs
  49. A point of comparison for an individual in the matter of forming values, attitudes and behavior is called :
    (a) Reference group
    (b) Celebrity
    (c) Personality
    (d) T. Group
  50. Societal concept of marketing is for:
    (a) Large scale selling and production efforts
    (b) Production as per consumer needs
    (c) Product improvement
    (d) Improvement of people’s well being
  51. The big difference between advertising and publicity is that :
    (a) Publicity is free and advertising is paid for
    (b) The sponsor of the advertising is openly identified
    (c) Publicity is limited to sales of services and advertising is used for products and services
    (d) All of the above
  52. How many entities are involved in regulating the financial sector in India?
    (a) 3
    (b) 5
    (c) 10
    (d) 1
  53. Which one of the following is not credit rating agency?
    (a) CRISIL
    (b) Moody’s
    (c) IRDA
    (d) ICRA
  54. Global depository receipts (GDRs) are issued in……….. market.
    (a) Indian capital
    (b) US capital
    (c) Euro
    (d) Australian capital
  55. FCCBs stands for:
    (a) Foreign capital convertible bonds
    (b) Foreign currency convertible bonds
    (c) Foreign currency capital bonds
    (d) Foreign capital currency bonds
  56. SEBI is……………………………
    (a) Stock Exchange
    (b) Credit Rating Agency
    (c) Regulatory Agency
    (d) Bank
  57. Which one of the following is not money market instrument?
    (a) Certificate of Deposit
    (b) Commercial Paper
    (c) Treasury Bill
    (d) Debenture
  58. A written statement of the human qualification, education and experience needed to perform a job is referred to as:
    (a) Job design
    (b) Job description
    (c) Job specification
    (d) Job enrichment
  59. The differential piece wage plan is related to:
    (a) Joseph Scanlon
    (b) F.W. Koontz
    (c) Harold Koontz
    (d) James Rowan
  60. “Human relations Approach/ theory’ to management was originated by:
    (a) F.W. Taylor
    (b) Peter F.Drucker
    (c) Elton Mayo
    (d) Henry Fayol
  61. VRS (Voluntary Retirement Scheme) may be used in…………
    (a) Training policy
    (b) Exit policy
    (c) Import policy
    (d) Export policy
  62. Dexterity tests are used to judge the……………
    (a) Training of the candidate
    (b) Proficiency of the candidate
    (c) Physical movements of the candidate
    (d) None of the above
  63. The practice of placing a candidate at the right job is:
    (a) Selection
    (b) Recruitment
    (c) Placement
    (d) Interview
  64. SDR’s are allocated by the :
    (a) WTO
    (b) IMF
    (c) RBI
    (d) IFC
  65. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I  List II
    (a) Ethnocentric approach  (i) Companies view foreign market as an extension of domestic market
    (b) Polycentric approach  (ii) Companies establish foreign subsidiary and empowers its executives
    (c) Regiocentric approach (iii) Sunsidiaries consider regional environment for policy formulation
    (d) Geocentric approach (iv) Companies view the entire world as a single country

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) i, ii, iii, iv
    (b) ii, iii, i, iv
    (c) iv, iii, ii, i
    (d) i, iii, ii, iv

  66. Which one of the following is not an advantage of the fixed exchange rate?
    (a) Protection from the risk of uncertainty
    (b) Maintenance of monetary discipline
    (c) Convenience
    (d) Transient nature
  67. The theory of comparative advantage assumes single factor of production i.e.:
    (a) Land
    (b) Labour
    (c) Capital
    (d) Machinery
  68. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I List II
    (a) Importing  (i) Mode of international business
    (b) Marketing  (ii) Functional of international Business
    (c) Sales expansion (iii) Objectives of international business
    (d) Economic forces (iv) External Influence

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) iii, i, iv, ii
    (b) iv, ii, iii, i
    (c) i, ii, iii, iv
    (d) iv,iii, ii, i,

  69. The W.T.O. is the embodiment of ………result and the successor to…….
    (a) Uruguay Round, GATT
    (b) Bretton, Woods, GATT
    (c) Uruguay Round, GARP
    (d) Bretton, Woods, GAAP
  70. The income which accrues and arises outside India, from sources situated outside India:
    (a) Is exempt in the hands of all assesses in India
    (b) Is chargeable in the hands of all assesses in India
    (c) Is chargeable in the hands of resident assesses in India
    (d) Is chargeable in the hands of non- resident assesses in India
  71. In the case of partnership Firms, if certain conditions are satisfies and if the profit of the firm is R.s 1,50,000, the amount of remuneration paid to partners will be deductible upto…….in the hands of firm.
    (a) Rs. 1,35,000
    (b) Rs. 1,50,000
    (c) Rs. 3,00,000
    (d) Rs. 90,000
  72. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    Nature of Payment  Resident status of Recipient Tax to be deducted at sources at the Rate
    (a) Interest on Securities (other than exceptions)  (i) Any person (I) 0%
    (b) Interest up to Rs.10,000 on Bank FDRs  (ii) Resident person  (II) 10%
    (c) Commission etc. on sale of lottery tickets exceeding Rs.1,000  (iii) Any person  (III) 20%
    (d) Payment regarding NSS exceeding Rs.2,500 (iv) Resident person (IV) 10%

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) d-ii, b-i, c-iv, a-iii
    (b) b-i, d-ii, a-iii, c-iv
    (c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
    (d) c-iii, a-i, b-ii, d-iv,

  73. Match the items of the List I and items of the List II and choose the correct option from the codes given below:
    List I  List II
    (a) Concealment of income (i) Tax Avoidance income
    (b) Art of dodging tax without breaking the law (ii) Tax management
    (c) Reducing tax liability by fulfilling intentions of law  (iii) Tax Evasion
    (d) Compliance with statutory provisions of law  (iv) Tax Planning

    Codes:
    a, b, c, d
    (a) iii, i, iv, ii
    (b) iv, ii, iii, i
    (c) i, ii, iii, iv
    (d) iv,iii, ii, i,

  74. In case of sale and lease back, the actual cost of asset for claiming depreciation in the books of lessor will be:
    (a) Amount paid to seller of an asset.
    (b) Fair market value of an asset on the date of purchase of an asset
    (c) Written down value of an asset in the books of the seller
    (d) Total amount of the lease rentals receivable over the life of the asset
  75. In case where capital asset is converted to stock in trade and when stock in trade is sold. The amount chargeable to tax will be:
    (a) Only the amount of difference between sale price and fair market value as on date of conversion under the head profits and Gains from Business or Profession
    (b) Difference between fair market value as on date of conversion and cost of acquisition or indexed cost of acquisition or indexed cost of acquisition as capital gains and difference between sale price and fair market value as on date of conversion as profits and Gains from Business or Profession
    (c) Difference between sale price and cost of acquisition as capital gains
    (d) Difference between sale price and cost of acquisition as Profits and Gains from Business or Profession.

    Answer Key

    1 (c) 2 (d) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 (d) 6 (b) 7 (c) 8 (b) 9 (d) 10 (a) 11 (d) 12 (a) 13 (a) 14 (d) 15 (b) 16 (c) 17 (b) 18 (c) 19 (b) 20 (c) 21 (c) 22 (d) 23 (b) 24 (c) 25 (a) 26 (c) 27 (a) 28 (a) 29 (b) 30 (d) 31 (a) 32 (c) 33 (a) 34 (c) 35 (b) 36 (d) 37 (c) 38 (z) 39 (c) 40 (c) 41 (a) 42 (d) 43 (c) 44 (a) 45 (b) 46 (c) 47 (d) 48 (c) 49 (a) 50 (d) 51 (a) 52 (b) 53 (c) 54 (c) 55 (b) 56 (c) 57 (d) 58 (d) 59 (b) 60 (c) 61 (b) 62 (c) 63 (c) 64 (b) 65 (a) 66 (d) 67 (b) 68 (c) 69 (a) 70 (c) 71 (b) 72 (a) 73 (c) 74 (c) 75 (b)