Module 1 : Business Management ; Managerial Economics & Business Ethics
Part A: Business Management [Unit – I]
- 1. Robert L Katz identified three kinds of skills for administrators. Which among the following skills was NOT identified by Katz?
(a) Technical skill
(b) Human skill
(c) Design skill
(d) Conceptual skill - 2. “The right that is delegated to an individual or department to control specified processes, practices, policies, or other matters relating to activities undertaken by person in other departments” is called:
(a) Product authority
(b) Functional authority
(c) Temporary authority
(d) Service authority - 3. Match List-I with List-II
List I (Approaches of Management)
A. Decision theory approach
B. Management science approach
C. Operational approach
D. Contingency approach
List II (Explanation)
I. Managing is seen as mathematical process.
II. Managerial practice depends on circumstances
III. Focus is on making decisions
IV. Draws together concepts, principles, techniques and knowledge from other fields of managerial approach.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Part B: Managerial Economics [Unit–I]
- 4. When we measure what type of demand we assume that effects of other variables is constant?
(a) Revenue and price elasticity of demand
(b) Gross elasticity of demand
(c) Income elasticity of demand
(d) Promotional elasticity of demand - 5. The structuralist theory of inflation was proposed by:
(a) G. Myrdal and P. Streeten
(b) V.N Pandit
(c) Milton Fredman
(d) Fritz Machlup
Part C: Business Ethics [Unit–I]
- 6. Whistle blowing is:
(a) The choices made from among two or more alternatives
(b) A discrepancy between some current state of affairs and some desired state
(c) Reporting unethical practices by their employer to outsiders
(d) Refers to choices that are consistent and value maximizing - 7. John Challenger suggested that we should consider certain things in acting more ethically in downsizing. What things he sugegsted?
A. Planning
B. Pessimism about the future of the company
C. Emotions
D. Timing
E. Stakeholder perception
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D and E Only
(b) A, B, C and D Only
(c) B, C, D and E Only
(d) A, B, D and E Only
Module 2: Organisational Behaviour [Unit–II]
- 8. A sum total of ways in which an individual reacts and interacts with others is called:
(a) Perception
(b) Attitude
(c) Personality
(d) Values - 9. A phenomenon in which the norm for consensus overrides that realistic appraisal of alternative
course of action is:
(a) Groupshift
(b) Groupthink
(c) Brainstorming
(d) Nominal group technique - 10. What is the belief among pluralists regarding conflict in organisation?
(a) Conflict is unnecessary and should be avoided at all cost
(b) Conflict is necessary and should be ignored
(c) Conflict is necessary but it can be managed and resolved
(d) Conflict should be eliminated through strict rules - 11. Arrange the major steps of Luthan’s O.B. Mod approach to behavioral performance management from earlier to later
A. Measure
B. Identity
C. Intervene
D. Analyse
E. Evaluate
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, C, D, E, A
(c) A, C, B, E, D
(d) B, A, D, C, E - 12. Arrange the Five Stages of Conflict Process in proper sequence from beginning to end
A. Potential opposition or incompatibility
B. Intentions
C. Cognition and personalisation
D. Outcomes
E. Behaviour
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, E, B, D
(b) A, C, B, E, D
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) A, D, E, C, B - 13. Arrange the Model of Organisation Development Process of H.M.F Rush in proper sequence from beginning to end.
A. Problem Recognition
B. Organization diagnosis
C. Feed back for change strategy
D. Interventions
E. Measurement and Evaluation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) A, B, C, E, D
(c) B, A, C, D, E
(d) C, A, D, B, E - 14. Match List-I with List-II
List I (Macro level organizational stressors)
A. Rotating work shifts
B. Line-staff conflicts
C. Appraisal system
D. Polluted air
List II (Causative factor in organization)
I. Organisational structure and design
II. Administrative policies and strategies
III. Working conditions
IV. Organisational process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III - 15. Match List I with List II
List I (Conflict)
A. The traditional view
B. The human relations view
C. The interactionist view
D. Functional conflict
List II (Appropriate view)
I. The belief that conflict is natural and inevitable outcome in any group
II. The belief that all conflict is harmful and must be avoided
III. Conflict that supports the goals of the group and improves its performance
IV. The belief that conflict is not a positive force in a group but that it is absolutely necessary for a group to perform effectively
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Module 3: Human Resource Management [Unit–II]
- 21. The procedure for determining the duties and skill requirements of a job and the kind of person who should be hired for it is:
(a) Job description
(b) Job analysis
(c) Job specification
(d) Job evaluation - 22. “Formulating and executing human resource policies and practices that produce the employee competencies and behaviours the company needs to achieve its strategic aims” is called?
(a) Strategic human resource Management
(b) Strategic human resource Planning
(c) Strategic human resource Auditing
(d) Strategic human resource Evaluation - 23. Who has developed the HRD scorecard?
(a) T.V Rao
(b) Peter F. Drucker
(c) J. Friedman
(d) J. Bright - 24. “The process for enabling employees to better understand and develop their career and interests more effectively” is termed as ?
(a) Career Planning
(b) Career Management
(c) Career Development
(d) Career Counselling - 25. Arrange the career management process in proper sequence from begining to end.
A. Assessment
B. Strategy
C. Career planning
D. Career evaluation
E. Career Development
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) B, A, C, E, D
(c) A, B, D, C, E
(d) B, A, D, C, E - 26. Arrange the Repatriation process in proper order as given by Peter J Dowling.
A. Preparation
B. Transition
C. Physical relocation
D. Re-adjustment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) A, C, B, D
(c) B, A, C, D
(d) A, D, B, C - 27. In Flow Model, associated with forecasting personnel needs, the forecaster will-
A. Determine the time that should be covered.
B. Establish categories to which employees can be assigned.
C. Will not estimate the probability of transition.
D. Will solicit estimate of personnel needed from group of exports.
E. Count annual movements among states for several time period.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, B and D Only
(c) A, B and E Only
(d) B, C and D Only - 28. Which of the followings are Career Development Initiatives?
A. Career Planning workshops.
B. Mentoring
C. Career Counselling
D. Coaching
E. Personal Development Plans
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D Only
(b) A, B, C and E Only
(c) B, C, D and E Only
(d) A, C, D and E Only - 29. Which of the following are settlement machineries of industrial disputes under Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
A. Works Committee
B. Collective Bargaining
C. Conciliation
D. Adjudication
E. Voluntary Arbitration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D Only
(b) A, C, D and E only
(c) B, C, D and E Only
(d) C, A and D Only - 30. Match List I with List II
List I (Forms of Strikes)
A. Economic strike
B. Unfair labour practice strike
C. Wild cat strike
D. Sympathy strike
List II (Appropriate meaning)
I. A strike aimed at protesting illegal conduct by the employer
II. A strike that results from a failure to agree on the terms of a contract that involves wages, benefits and other conditions of employment.
III. A strike that takes place when one union strikes in support of the strike of another
IV. An unauthorized strike occurring during the term of a contract.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Module 4: Accounting [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
- 31. If profit before interest and tax is Rs.10000, provision for Tax=Rs.5000, No. of Equity Share = 3000, Preference dividend = 2000, Dividend per equity share=0.40, what is the value of payout ratio?
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 50%
(d) 40% - 32. Prepaid salary is which type of account ?
(a) Personal Account
(b) Real Account
(c) Nominal Account
(d) Both Personal and Real Account - 33. From the following information:
Year 2021 2022
Sales Rs.32,00,000 Rs.57,00,000
Profit/Loss Rs.3,00,000 Rs.7,00,000
What is the value of P/V ratio?
(a) 16%
(b) 40%
(c) 12.5%
(d) 25% - 34. Arrange the following components of cost sheet in proper sequence starting from first to last.
A. Cost of sale
B. Cost of production
C. Raw material consumed
D. Factory cost
E. Prime cost
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D, E
(b) C, D, E, B, A
(c) C, D, E, A, B
(d) C, E, D, B, A - 35. In which of the following cases there will be Flow of Funds?
A. Purchase of Building for cash
B. Cash collection from debtors
C. Cash payment to creditors
D. Issue of share for cash
E. Payment of creditors by issue of shares
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) A, C and D Only
(d) A, D and E Only - 36. Match List I with List II
List I (Ind AS)
A. Ind AS-12
B. Ind AS-16
C. Ind AS-33
D. Ind AS-38
List II (Related to)
I. Earning per share
II. Intangible assets
III. Property, plant and equipment
IV. Income taxes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - 37. Match List I with List II
List I (Type of variance)
A. Material cost variance
B. Material price variance
C. Material usage variance
D. Material mix variance
List II (Formula)
I. (Standard quantity – Actual quantity) × Standard price
II. (Standard price – Actual price) × Actual quantity
III. Standard cost of actual quantity of actual mixture – Standard cost of actual quantity of standard mixture
IV. (Standard price × Standard quantity) – (Actual price × Actual quantity)
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III - 38. Match List I with List II
List I (Corporate Restructuring)
A. Leveraged buyouts
B. Divertment
C. Sell-off
D. Spin-off
List II (Meaning)
I. Company sells a part of its business to third party
II. Company creates a new company from the existing single entity
III. Sale of a company’s assets or division to the outsiders
IV. An acquisition of a company in which the acquisition is substantially financed through debt
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Module 5: Financial Management [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
- 39. What is the value of cost of capital after tax in a perpetual bond sold at par, coupon rate of interest being 7 percent. Assuming that firm pay tax at a 50 percent rate?
(a) 7%
(b) 35%
(c) 5%
(d)3.5% - 40. If Rf=10%, Rm=18% and Bi= 1.35, What is the expected rate of return for security?
(a) 28.8%
(b) 18.8%
(c) 8.8%
(d) 20.8% - 41. Which one of the following cost arises due to the failure of the customers to meet their obligations when payment on credit sales become due after the expiry of the credit period?
(a) Collection costs
(b) Capital costs
(c) Delinquency costs
(d) Default costs - 42. A company paid a dividend of ₹ 3.70 in the previous year. The dividends in the future are expected to grow perpetually at a rate of 8 per cent. What is the share price today if the market captalises dividend at 12 per cent?
(a) Rs.40
(b) Rs.33
(c) Rs.100
(d) Rs.200 - 43. Which one of the following is Walter’s formula to determine the market price per share?
(a) p =
(b) p =
(c) p =
(d) p = - 44. Arrange the following developments in International monetary system in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest;-
A. Gold standard
B. Smithsonian arrangement
C. Specie commodity standard
D. Floating Rate Regime
E. Fixed Party System
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, B, E, D
(b) B, A, C, E, D
(c) E, C, A, D, B
(d) C, A, E, B, D - 45. Arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest.
A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
B. Regional Rural Bank
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D. National Industrial Development Corporation
E. The Reserve Bank of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, A, D, E
(b) C, B, D, A, E
(c) B, D, E, C, A
(d) A, B, C, D, E - 46. Arrange the financial institutions according to their formation from latest to earliest.
A. Industrial Finance Corporation of India
B. Regional Rural Bank
C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
D. National Industrial Development Corporation
E. The Reserve Bank of India.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, A, D, E
(b) C, B, D, A, E
(c) B, D, E, C, A
(d) A, B, C, D, E - 47. Which of the following are correct formulas of combined leverage?
A. DCF =
B. DCF =
C. DCF =
D. DCF =
E. DCF =
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B and D only - 48. Which of the following are correct with respect to foreign exchange market?
A. Short position = Supply of a currency < demand for currency. B. Short position = Supply of a currency > demand for currency.
C. Long position = supply of a currency > demand for currency
D. Long position = supply of a currency < demand for currency
E. Square position = Supply of a currency demand for currency
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C and E Only
(b) B, D and E Only
(c) B, C and E Only
(d) A, D and E Only - 49. Which of the following are merits of Internal Rate of Return Method of Capital Budgeting?
A. Consider all cash flows
B. Satisfies the value additivity principle
C. Generally consistent with wealth maximization principle
D. It considers the time value of money
E. It never fails to indicate correct choice between mutually exclusive projects.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and E Only
(b) A, C and E Only
(c) B, C and D Only
(d) A, C and D only - 50. Match List I with List II
List I (Derivative type)
A. Call option
B. Put option
C. Future contract
D. Forward contract
List II (Explanation)
I. An agreement to buy or sell an asset on a specific date for a specified price, settlement happens at the end of the period
II. An agreement between two parties to buy or sell an asset at a certain time in future at certain price, through standardized contracts and traded through stock exchange
III. A contract that gives the holder the right but not the obligation to buy specified securities at a specified exercise date
IV. A contract that gives the holder the right but not the obligation to sell securities on or by a certain date at a fixed exercise price
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Module 6: Strategic Management [Unit–VI]
- 51. Who has propounded the ‘Diamond of National Competitive Advantages’ model of corporate level strategies?
(a) M. E Porter
(b) H. I Ansoff
(c) J.B Barney
(d) Peter F. Drucker - 52. Who has suggested the 7-S framework for organisational change?
(a) Mckinsey
(b) Peter Drucker
(c) Dale Yoder
(d) Mintzberg - 53. Arrange the Hambrick and Fredrickson model of strategic management in proper sequence from beginning to end.
A. Vision and mission
B. Goals and objectives
C. Internal and external strategic analysis
D. Implementation Levers and strategic leadership
E. Strategy arenas vehicles differentiators staging economic logic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, B, D, E
(b) A, B, E, C, D
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) B, A, C, D, E - 54. Which of the following are the modes of strategic decision making according to Miztzberg?
A. Entrepreneurial Mode
B. Adaptive Mode
C. Planning Mode
D. Logical Incrementallisation Mode
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) C and D Only
(c) A, B and C Only
(d) A, B, C and D Only - 55. Which of the following terms are associated with the VRIO framework of Internal Analysis?
A. Valuable
B. Rare
C. Intimitable
D. Organised for usage
E. Innovative
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) A, B and C Only
(c) A, B and E Only
(d) A, B, C and D Only - 56. Match List I with List II
List (Model/Framework)
A. VRIO Framework
B. Value Chain Analysis
C. Product Market Matrix
D. PEST Analysis
List II (Developed by)
I. J. B. Barney
II. M. E. Porter
III. H. I. Ansoff
IV. Johnson and Scholes
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Module 7: Marketing Management [Unit-VI]
- 57. “Dividing a market into smaller segments of buyers with distinct needs, characteristics or behaviours that might require separate marketing strategies or mixes” is termed as?
(a) Market Targeting
(b) Market Segmentation
(c) Market Differentiation
(d) Market Positioning - 58. “Consumer buying behaviour in situations characterised by high consumer involvement in a purchase and significant prescribed differences among brands” is termed as:
(a) Complex buying behaviour
(b) Dissonance-reducing buying behaviour
(c) Habitual buying behaviour
(d) Variety-seeking buying behavior - 59. Which one of the following is true about service marketing?
(a) Services can be seen, tasted, felt, heard or smelled before purchase
(b) Services can be separated from the service providers
(c) Quality of services depends on who provides them and when, where and how
(d) Services can be stored for later sale or use - 60. Which of the following movement of products clearly defines the term “Inbound Logistics”?
(a) Suppliers to company
(b) Company to Reseller
(c) Reseller to Customer
(d) Customers to Suppliers - 61. Which of the following is a type of off-price retailer?
(a) Super store
(b) Category killer
(c) Factory outlet
(d) Discount store - 62. Which one of the following is true about the role of sales force/personal selling?
(a) Personal selling consists largely of non personal communication with large group of customers
(b) Personal selling is interpersonal arm of promotion mix
(c) Personal selling is less effective than advertising in more complex selling situations
(d) Personal selling sales force is not allowed to adjust marketing offer and presentation to fit each customer’s special needs - 63. Arrange the steps in demand forecasting from beginning to end
A. Specifying objectives
B. Making choice of methods
C. Determing the perspective
D. Estimation and interpretation of results
E. Collection of data and data adjustment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, C, E
(b) C, A, E, D, B
(c) C, B, A, D, E
(d) A, C, B, E, D - 64. Arrange the following Buyer-Readiness stages in correct sequence from starting to end.
A. Knowledge
B. Awareness
C. Preference
D. Conviction
E. Liking
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, E, C, D
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) B, E, A, C, D
(d) E, A, B, D, C - 65. Arrange the Project Life Cycle phase in proper sequence from starting to end.
A. Definition phase
B. Conception phase
C. Implementation phase
D. Planning and organising phase
E. Project clean-up phase
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, E, C
(b) B, A, D, C, E
(c) B, A, C, D, E
(d) E, A, C, D, В - 66. Which among the following characteristics influence consumer buying behavior strongly?
A. Cultural
B. Social
C. Personal
D. Psychological
E. Technological
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D Only
(b) B, C, D and E Only
(c) A, C, D and E Only
(d) A, B, D and E Only - 67. Under Brand Sponsorship, store brands are also known as which other names from the following?
A. National Brands
B. Generic Brands
C. Private Brands
D. Distributor Brands
E. Manufacturers Brands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C and D Only
(b) A, B, and C Only
(c) C, D and E Only
(d) A, D and E Only - 68. Match List I with List II
List I (Pricing situation)
A. Product line pricing
B. Optional product pricing
C. Captive product pricing
D. By-product pricing
List II (Description)
I. Pricing optional or accessory products sold with the main product
II. Setting prices across an entire product line
III. Pricing low value by-product to get rid of or make money on them
IV. Pricing products that must be used with the main product
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I - 69. Match List I with List II
List I (Types of buying decision behavior)
A. Complex buying behavior
B. Dissonance reducing buying behavior
C. Habitual buying behavior
D. Variety seeking buying behavior
List II (Explanation)
I. Highly involved in a purchase and perceive significant difference among brands
II. Low consumer involvement and little significant brand difference
III. Low consumer involvement but significant perceived brand difference
IV. Highly involved with an expensive, infrequent or risky purchase but see little difference among brands
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II - 70. Match List I with List II
List I (Societal classification of products)
A. Deficient products
B. Pleasing products
C. Salutary products
D. Desirable products
List II (Degree of long-run consumer benefits and immediate consumer satisfaction)
I. Low long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
II. High long-run consumer benefit and high immediate satisfaction
III. High long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction
IV. Low long-run consumer benefit and low immediate satisfaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
Module 8: Statistics for Management & Operations Management
Part A: Statistics for Management [Unit-VIII]
- 71. The mean of binomial distribution is 40 and standard deviation 6. What is the value of n?
(a) 36
(b) 360
(c) 400
(d) 40 - 72. Which one of the following is a non-parametric test
(a) χ2 test
(b) t-test
(c) Z-test
(d) F-test - 73. Arrange the following procedures of testing hypotheses in proper sequence.
A. Making decisions
B. Setting a test criterion
C. Set up hypothesis
D. Set up suitable significance level
E. Doing computations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D, B, E, A
(b) B, C, D, A, Ε
(c) C, D, A, B, E
(d) D, C, B, E, A - 74. Which of the following are positional averages?
A. Geometric mean
B. Hormonic mean
C. Mode
D. Median
E. Percentiles
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and E Only
(b) C and D Only
(c) D and E Only
(d) C, D and E Only - 75. Which of the following are properties of regression coefficients?
A. r =
B. Change in origin are not affected
C. Change in scale are not affected
D. If both the regression coefficient have negative sign, the correlation coefficient will have negative sign
E. If one regression coefficient is greater than one then other regression coefficient must be less than one.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D and E Only
(b) A, D and E Only
(c) A, B, D and E Only
(d) A, B and C only - 76. Match List I with List II
List I (Nature of study)
A. Size of all strata is equal
B. Information can be provided by a few respondents
C. Information is required from particular strata of population
D. To obtain quick information
List II (Choice of Sampling Method)
I. Quota sampling
II. Convenience sampling
III, Judgement sampling
IV. Stratified sampling
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Part B: Operations Management [Unit-VIII]
- 77. Which of the following is true about the term “KAIZEN”?
(a) KAIZEN is dramatic, a real attention getter. It is like magma that appears in abrupt eruptions from time to time
(b) KAIZEN involves all the activities directed towards maintaining current technological, managerial and operating standards and improving current standards
(c) KAIZEN is subtle and its results are seldom immediately visible. It is an ongoing process and involves entire organisation
(d) KAIZEN is seen as major changes in the wake of technological break throughs or the introduction of latest management concepts or production techniques - Find the initial feasible solution of the following problem by Vogel’s Approximation Method (VAM).
To
From W1 W2 W3 Supply
F1 16 20 12 200
F2 14 8 18 160
F3 26 24 16 100
Demand 180 130 150 460
460
(a) Rs.6060
(b) Rs.6660
(c) Rs.6000
(d) Rs.6600 - Arrange the following Historical Events in operations management in the order of sequence starting from oldest to newest.
A. Quality Revolution
B. Scientific Management
C. Industrial Revolution
D. Operations Research
E. Human Relations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, B, E, D, A
(b) B, C, D, E, A
(c) A, B, D, C, E
(d) E, C, B, A, D
Module 9: International Business & Information Technology
Part A: International Business [Unit–IX]
- Which one of the following is a type of Foreign Direct Investment?
(a) Greenfield Investment
(b) Foreign Portfolio Investment
(c) Qualified Foreign Investment
(d) Commercial loans - Which one of the following in NOT a technique of foreign trade financing?
(a) Discounting
(b) Banker’s Acceptance
(c) Factoring
(d) Forfeiting - Which one of the following is NOT a component of Balance of Payments?
(a) Official Reserves Account
(b) Current Account
(c) Deficit Account
(d) Capital Account - Arrange the following Trade Negotiation Rounds of World Trade Organisation in the order of their occurrence from oldest to latest:
A. Bali Conference
B. Geneva Conference
C. Hong Kong Conference
D. Cancun Conference
E. Doha Conference
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, E, D
(b) B, C, D, E, A
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) E, D, C, B, A - Which of the following are the main objectives of establishment of International Monetary Fund (IMF)?
A. To provide long-term funds at concession rates to the poorest member countries.
B. To promote the development of Private enterprises in member countries.
C. To regulate the exchange rates and enforce the rules.
D. To promote exchange stability, maintaining orderly exchange arrangements and avoiding competitive exchange devaluation.
E. To assist in establishment of a multilateral system of payments in respect of current transaction between members.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, C and E Only
(d) C, D and E Only - Which among the following are true about World Trade Organisation (WTO)?
A. The WTO is a simple extension of General Agreement of Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
B. The WTO is a permanent institution with its own secretariat
C. The agreements which constitute the WTO are almost all plurilateral and thus involve commitments for the entire members
D. The WTO includes Trade in Services and trade-related aspects of intellectual property rights
E. The WTO dispute settlement system is faster, more automatic and thus much less susceptible to blockages, than old GATT system
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D and E Only
(b) A, B and C Only
(c) C, D and E Only
(d) B, C and D Only - Which of the following are operational methodology of Self Help Group?
A. Village meeting of women in villages by MFI
B. Group formation
C. Group Training for 5-7 days on procedures and business development skills
D. Group meeting once in a week for mobilizing saving, disbursing and repaying loans.
E. Lending money for long term loans
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, B, C and D Only
(d) B, C, D and E Only - Which of the following Institutions are providing micro finance services to the poors?
A. Conventional weaker section lending banks.
B. Microfinance Institution.
C. Self Help Group-bank linkage programme
D. EXIM banks
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) A, B and C Only - Match List I with List II
List I (International business orientation)
A. Ethnocentric orientation
B. Polycentric orientation
C. Regio centric orientation
D. Geocentric orientation
List II (Explanation)
I. A global marketing strategy is followed across all the countries considering the world as a global village without any boundaries
II. Common marketing strategy is applied in a group of foreign countries having similarities in terms of consumers and business environment
III. Marketing strategies are modified as per the needs of the local consumer of the foreign market
IV. Marketing strategy of domestic market is applied in the foreign country’s market
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV - Match List I with List II
List I (Name of Theories)
A. theory of Opportunities and Innovations
B. Theory of Profit
C. Theory of Entrepreneurial Supply
D. Psychoanalytic Theory
List II (Propounder)
I. Frank H. Knight
II. Peter F. Drucker
III. Sigmund Freud
IV. Thomas Cochran
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Part B: Information Technology [Unit-IX]
- Which of the following helps in Business decision making in ill-structured decision situation often using complex spreadsheet by creating “what if” models for manager?
(a) Management Information System (MIS)
(b) Decision Support System (DSS)
(c) Knowledge Work System (KWS)
(d) Executive Support System (ESS) - Arrange the following stages/elements of technology management in proper sequence starting from first to last;-
A. Technology Adaptation
B. Technology Abandonment
C. Technology Advancement
D. Technology Acquisition
E. Technology Awareness
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D, B, E
(b) B, C, D, A, E
(c) E, D, A, C, B
(d) D, C, A, B, E
Module 10: Entrepreneurship Development [Unit–X]
- Which type of Intrapreneur is known for generating innovative ideas and seeking ways to improve process?
(a) Employee Intrapreneur
(b) Doers Intrapreneur
(c) Creator Intrapreneur
(d) Implementers Intrapreneur - In which of the following Association/organisation Ela Bhatt is associated?
(a) Mukta Services
(b) Lijjat Papad
(c) Self employed women’s Association
(d) Avya Global connect - What can lead to the withdrawal of status respect according to Hagen’s theory of Entrepreneurship?
(a) Increased recognition from the group
(b) Perception that efforts and purposes are highly valued
(c) Belief in the stability of status symbols
(d) Perception that efforts and purposes are not valued by others - What is the primary objective of a feasibility study?
(a) To persuade investors to fund a project
(b) To assess the historical background of a business
(c) To uncover strength and weakness of a business idea
(d) To outline the technical development process
Read the passage carefully and answer the Question that follow:
Organizational culture refers to qualities of the workplace itself that influence its employees, whereas Organizational behavior refers to the resulting behavior of the people within it. Organizational culture includes factors such as core values, the company’s mission statement and expectations of the employees. It defines the identity and how it wants to be perceived.
For the instance, if a company has a mission statement focused on providing the highest quality of customer service, then the core values may be centered around communication, professionalism and customer satisfaction. This will shape the employees expectations, such as expecting them to be willing and courteous to go the extra mile to serve the customer.
Organizational behavior is the resulting behavior of the people within the organization based on the culture they’re immersed in. if the company culture is one that promotes customer service, then the employees are likely to display behavior such as friendliness and helpfulness when dealing with customers.
The opposite may be true if the company’s culture revolves around a competitive environment and employees are expected to go above and beyond to be the most successful. In this case, employees may display behavior such as aggressiveness and competitiveness in order to achieve the highest results.
Organizational culture works as the foundation for the employee’s behavioral exhibit, and the two are closely intertwined. If a company wishes to create a positive working environment, it is essential to establish an organizational culture that promotes a healthy behavioral environment among its employees.
- Which of the following is NOT a factor included in organisational culture?
(a) Core values
(b) Companies mission
(c) Employee’s salary
(d) Expectations of employees - In a company with a culture focused on customer service, employees are expected to demonstrate behaviors such as:
(a) Competitiveness and agression
(b) Friendliness and helpfulness
(c) Independence and autonomy
(d) Innovation and Creativity - What might employees in a competitive organizational culture display?
(a) Cooperation and teamwork
(b) Friendliness and helpfulness
(c) Indifference and passiveness
(d) Aggressiveness and Competitiveness - Which statement best describes the relationship between organizational culture and organizational behavior?
(a) Organizational culture influences the resulting behavior of empolyees
(b) Organizational culture is the result of organizational behavior
(c) Organizational behavior is solely determined by external factors
(d) Organizational behavior is independent of organizational culture - What role does organizational behavior play in the workplace?
(a) It defines organizational goals
(b) It represents resultant employee actions
(c) It determines managerial decisions
(d) It outlines employee training programmes
Read the passage carefully and answer the Questions:
AI’s impact on the workforce is multifaceted. It involves the automation of repetitive and routine tasks, changing skill requirements and job displacement. This can be beneficial for employees as it frees them up to focus on more complex and creative work, but it can also create concerns about job displacement and changes in the demand for certain types of jobs. However, AI is also creating new job opportunities, especially in data analytics machine learning and AI development.
Despite these potential benefits, there are also concerns about the drawbacks of implementing AI on a larger scale in the workforce. One potential concern is job displacement, which can lead to unemployment and the need for reskilling and upskilling. Another concern is the potential for bias and discrimination in algorithms, which can have negative consequences for marginalized individuals and communities.
Privacy and security are also major concerns regarding the impact of AI on the workforce. As AI becomes more advanced, it is important to ensure that personal data is protected, and AI system are secure against cyberattacks. Nonetheless, AI can also enhance efficiency and productivity, and its advancements may lead to new job opportunities for workers with the right skills and knowledge.
- What is one potential benefit of AI in the workforce mentioned in the passage?
(a) Increased job displacement
(b) Automation of repetitive tasks
(c) Reduced need for creativity
(d) Decreased demand for data analysis - Which potential drawback of AI in the workforce is associated with algorithmic decision-making?
(a) Reduced efficiency
(b) Increased job satisfaction
(c) Bias and Discrimination
(d) Enhanced security measures - Which skill is likely to become increasingly important in light of AI’s impact on the workforce?
(a) Manual Labour
(b) Routine administrative task
(c) Following predefined procedures
(d) Creative thinking and problem-solving - According to the passage, what must be ensured as AI becomes more advanced in the workforce?
(a) Protection of personal data and cybersecurity
(b) Improved job security for all workers
(c) Increased bias in decision making
(d) Decreased efficiency in operations - Which statement summarieses a potential outcome of advancement in workforce according to the passage?
(a) AI will eliminate all job roles that require creativity
(b) AI will benefit workers in specialised technical field
(c) AI advancement may create new job opportunities
(d) AI will lead to a decrease in overall workforce productivity