Module 1 : Business Management ; Managerial Economics & Business Ethics
Part A: Business Management [Unit – I]
- Which of the following is not a type of downward communication in an organisation?
(a) Exit Interviews
(b) Policy Statements
(c) Handbooks
(d) Procedures - Which one of the following approaches to management analysis has “Situations are all different” as its limitation?
(a) Managerial Roles Approach
(b) Contingency Approach
(c) Empirical Approach
(d) Decision Theory Approach - Which of the following guiding principles define horizontal organization design?
A. Organization revolves around the task and not the process
B. The hierarchy is flattened
C. Customers drive performance
D. Team performance is rewarded
E. Supplier and customer contact is minimized
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, C, D Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Decision Making Style)
A. Directive Style
B. Analytical Style
C. Conceptual Style
D. Behavioural Style
List II (Description)
I. High tolerance for ambiguity and strong people and social concern
II. Low tolerance for ambiguity and are oriented toward task and technical concern
III. Low tolerance for ambiguity and strong people and social concern
IV. High tolerance for ambiguity and a strong task and technical orientation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Part B: Managerial Economics [Unit–I]
- Which one of the following is not true as per the Two-sector Model of National Income?
(a) The economy is a closed one and there is no foreign trade
(b) There is no corporate savings
(c) There is no government, or if present it does not perform any economic functions
(d) Prices of all goods and services, labour and capital are not given and does not remain constant - Arrange the following five phases of the business cycle in the proper sequence :
A. Peak of boom or prosperity
B. Recovery and expansion
C. Expansion of economic activities
D. Recession or the downtrend
E. Through, the bottom of depression
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, C, A, D, E
(b) A, B, D, C, E
(c) C, A, D, E, B
(d) D, E, B, A, C - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Theories of Profit)
A. Profit as Rent of Ability
B. Dynamic Theory of Profit
C. Risk Theory of Profit
D. Innovation Theory of Profit
List II (Propounder)
I. Joseph A. Schumpeter
II. F. B. Hawley
III. F. A. Walker
IV. J. B. Clark
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Pricing Methods)
A. Surge pricing
B. Penetration pricing
C. Skimming pricing
D. Predatory pricing
List II (Explanation)
I. The method of pricing which aims at high price and high profits in introductory stage
II. The method of pricing which exploits sudden spurt in demand
III. The method of pricing which is set at a very low price to drive out competitors
IV. The method of pricing which seeks to achieve greater market through relatively low price
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(d) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Part C: Business Ethics [Unit–I]
- Which of the following statements are correct relating to corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in the Indian Context?
A. CSR shall be applicable to every company whose net worth is more than Rs. 5,000 crore
B. CSR shall be applicable to every company whose turnover is more than Rs.1,000 crore in a year
C. CSR shall be applicable to every company whose net profit is at least Rs.3 crore in a year
D. A company covered under CSR has to spend at least 3% of its average net profit made during the immediately preceding two financial years
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :
(a) A and B Only
(b) B and C Only
(c) C and D Only
(d) A and D Only
Module 2: Organisational Behaviour [Unit–II]
- Which one of the following components of Transactional Analysis discusses ulterior transactions leading to a pay-off?
(a) Interaction analysis
(b) Life position analysis
(c) Games analysis
(d) Script analysis - Which one of the following job stressor is not an organizational process stress?
(a) Specialization
(b) Tight controls
(c) Centralized decision making
(d) Little performance feedback - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of culture facilitating learning of learning organization?
(a) Suggestions
(b) Openness
(c) Teamwork
(d) Empathy - Arrange the given sub processes of perception in the logical sequence:
A. Interpretation of stimulus
B. Confrontation of specific stimulus
C. Behaviour
D. Feedback for clarification
E. Registration of stimulus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) E, B, A, C, D
(b) B, E, A, D, C
(c) B, E, A, C, D
(d) B, A, E, D, C - Arrange the given roles in the decreasing order of their involvement in the process of change:
A. Implementation team
B. Consultant
C. Task forces
D. Corporate management
E. Chief implementer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, D, E, A, C
(b) D, B, E, A, C
(c) D, B, A, E, C
(d) A, C, D, E, B - Which of the following are correct with regard to work groups and terms?
A. The work group has a strong clearly focused leader; the team has shared leadership roles.
B. The work group has individual and mutual accountability; the team has individual accountability
C. The work group’s purpose is the same as the organizations; the team has a specific purpose.
D. The work group has collective work products; the team has individual work products
E. The work group encourages open-ended, active problem solving meeting; the team runs efficient meeting
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) A, C Only
(c) B, C, E Only
(d) A, D, E Only - Which of the following dynamics (process) are relevant when the nature of OD intervention is structured?
A. Motivation development
B. Counselling
C. Role negotiation
D. Organization mirroring
E. L-groups
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C, E Only
(c) A, C, D Only
(d) D, E Only - Which of the following are included in the culture ?
A. Geography
B. Values
C. Economy
D. Rituals
E. Symbols
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, C, D Only
(b) A, B, C Only
(c) A, D, E Only
(d) B, D, E Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Secondary Need)
A. Need for Achievement
B. Need for Power
C. Need for Security
D. Need for Status
List II (Example)
I. Avoiding tasks or decisions with a risk of failure and blame
II. Developing a better way to do something
III. Working for the right company in the right job
IV. Influencing people to change their attitudes or behavior
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
Module 3: Human Resource Management [Unit–II]
- Which one of the following types of information collected in job analysis does not fall under work performance category?
(a) Work schedule
(b) Error analysis
(c) Work standards
(d) Work measurements - Which one of the following is not an institutional cause of industrial disputes?
(a) Bargaining unit
(b) Unfair practices
(c) Membership of union
(d) Layoff, retrenchment and dismissal - Which one of the following training methods is not suitable for skill development?
(a) Vestibule training
(b) Programmed learning
(c) Lectures
(d) Apprenticeship training - Which one of the following is not a mechanism of HRD Systems Maturity Score (HRD Scorecard developed by TVRLS India) ?
(a) Training
(b) Job Rotation
(c) Quality Orientation
(d) OD Interventions - Which one of the following is a disadvantage of critical incident method of performance appraisal?
(a) Standards may be unclear
(b) Time consuming
(c) Difficult to rate or rank employees relative to one another
(d) Halo effect bias can be a problem - Arrange the given steps of socializing new employees in the proper sequence :
A. Provide relevant training
B. Select a supervisor to be in charge of socialization
C. Provide a challenging job
D. Design a related orientation programme
E. Provide timely and consistent feedback
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) C, E, A, D, B
(b) A, E, C, D, B
(c) B, C, A, E, D
(d) C, A, E, B, D - Which of the following are the advantages of interview as a training need assessment technique?
A. Data can be easily summarised.
B. Questions can be modified.
C. Good of uncovering details of training needs.
D. Inexpensive
E. Easy to schedule
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C Only
(b) A, C, D Only
(c) B, C, E Only
(d) A, C, E Only - Which of the following are the functions of Talent management ?
A. Compensation
B. Collective Bargaining
C. Benefits and Services
D. Labour Relations
E. Training
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, C, E Only
(b) A, B, C Only
(c) D, E Only
(d) A, B, D, E Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Central Trade Union)
A. Indian National Trade Union Congress
B. Bharatiya Mazdoor Sangh
C. All India Trade Union Congress
D. Hind Mazdoor Sabha
List II (Political Affiliation)
I. Bahratiya Janata Party
II. Communist Party of India
III. Socialists
IV. Indian National Congress
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Category of Workers’ Grievance)
A. Working conditions
B. Personnel matters
C. Supervision
D. Welfare amenities and services
List II (Cause)
I. Uncalled for interference by seniors
II. Non-supply of safety equipment
III. Unsatisfactory medical facilities
IV. Unnecessary training
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
Module 4: Accounting [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
- Provisions for which of the following is not made while determining the economic or pure profit?
(a) Insurable risks
(b) Depreciation
(c) Necessary minimum payment to the shareholders
(d) Reserves to meet prospective loss - In case of power failure in the factory, the cost of Idle time is to be recorded in:
(a) Factory cost
(b) Direct cost
(c) Costing Profit & Loss Account
(d) Cost of Production - Calculate the Break Even sales from the following data :
Direct Material Rs.3,10,000
Direct Labour Rs.80,000
Fixed Overheads Rs. 60,000
Variable Overheads Rs.1,50,000
Sales Rs.6,00,000
(a) Rs.5,00,000
(b) Rs.6,00,000
(c) Rs.10,00,000
(d) Rs.60,00,000 - Which of the following is not the reason for splitting of a firm’s ordinary shares ?
(a) To make trading in shares attractive
(b) To signal the possibility of higher profits in the future
(c) To distribute higher dividends to shareholders
(d) To increase the per share par value by reducing the number of shares - Find out the correct sequence of the components of Cost Sheet:
A. Cost of sales
B. Works cost
C. Prime cost
D. Sales
E. Cost of production
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) C, B, E, A, D
(b) D, A, B, C, E
(c) B, C, A, E, D
(d) C, E, B, A, D - Arrange the steps involved in preparation of flexible budget :
A. Classify all costs into fixed, variable and semi-variable categories
B. Determine the types of standards that are to be used
C. Specify the time period that is used
D. Build up appropriate flexible budget for specified level of activity
E. Analyse cost behaviour patterns in response to past level of activity
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, C, B, E, D
(b) C, A, E, D, B
(c) C, A, B, E, D
(d) B, C, D, A, E - Which costs of an item of property, Plant and Equipment (PPE) can NOT be capitalised as per AS-10?
A. Inauguration costs or any other costs in connection with opening a new facility or business.
B. Costs of conducting business in a new location or with a new class of customer (including costs of staff training)
C. Cost of advertising, promotional activities costs and any other costs incurred in connection with introducing a new product or service.
D. Purchase price, including import duties and non-refundable purchase taxes, after deducting trade discounts and rates.
E. Any costs directly attributable to bringing the assets to the location and condition necessary for it to be capable of operating in the manner intended by management.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) D and E Only
(b) A, B and C Only
(c) B, C, D and E Only
(d) A, C, D and E Only
Module 5: Financial Management [Unit-IV & Unit-V]
- Which of the following is not true for ‘Pecking Order Theory’?
(a) Firms always use internal finance when available
(b) Choose debt over new issue of equity when external financing is required
(c) It explains the negative inverse relationship between profitability and debt ratio within an industry
(d) It fully explains the capital structure differences between industries - Calculate the level of EBIT at which the indifference level between the following financing alternative will occur:
I: Equity Share Capital of 10 each Rs.20,00,000
OR
II: Equity Share Capital of 10 each Rs.10,00,000
15% Debentures Rs.10,00,000
Assume that corporate tax rate is 50 percent
(a) Rs.30,000
(b) Rs.3,00,000
(c) Rs.2,00,000
(d) Rs.4,00,000 - Which one of the following is not the feature of ‘Security Market Line (SML) ?
(a) It describes the linear relationship between an individual security’s expected return and its systematic risk
(b) At zero risk, it has an intercept on the vertical axis equal to the risk-free rate
(c) The line represents the risk-free rate tangent to the original efficient frontier and investments on this line dominates all portfolios on the original efficient frontier
(d) When no risk is involved, investor still expects to be compensated for the time value of money - Which one of the following describes the ‘Future Value of an Annuity Due’?
(a) Cash flows occur at the end of each period, and the present value is calculated as of one period before the first cash flow
(b) Cash flows occur at the beginning of each period, and present value is calculated as of the first cash flow
(c) Cash flows occur at the end of each period, and future value is calculated as of the last cash flow
(d) Cash flows occur at the beginning of each period, and future value is calculated as of one period after the last cash flow - An investor follows a strategy wherein he buys a call with a low exercise price, buys a call with high exercise price and sells two calls with an exercise price between the two then which of the following strategy is he following?
(a) Straddle
(b) Strangle
(c) Spread
(d) Butterfly spread - Arrange the following stages of working capital cycle in correct sequence:
A. Work-in-progress
B. Debtors
C. Raw material
D. Finished goods
E. Cash
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, C, B, D, E
(b) C, A, D, B, E
(c) C, D, B, A, E
(d) A, B, E, D, C - Arrange the given steps of capital Budgeting in the right sequence:
A. Re-evaluating investment projects continually and performing post audits for completed projects
B. Generating investment proposals consistent with firm’s objectives
C. Evaluating project incremental cash flows
D. Selecting projects based on a value-maximising criterion
E. Estimating operating cash flows for investment proposals.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, C, E
(b) B, E, C, D, A
(c) C, D, A, B, Ε
(d) D, E, A, B, C - Arrange the following stages of Venture Capital Funding in its proper sequence :
A. First & Second stage of funding
B. Mezzanine Financing
C. Start-up Funding
D. Buyant Funding
E. Seed Funding
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) C, A, B, D, E
(b) E, C, A, B, D
(c) C, B, A, D, E
(d) E, A, B, C, D - Arrange the following items of business plan in its proper sequence :
A. Company description
B. Industry analysis
C. Market analysis
D. The Economies of the business
E. Executive summary
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, A, C, D, E
(b) E, B, A, C, D
(c) A, C, D, B, E
(d) E, B, A, D, C - Which of the following describe the features of ‘Term Loans’?
A. Maturity
B. Direct Negotiation
C. Security
D. Restrictive Covenants
E. Convertibility
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D and E Only
(b) A and C Only
(c) A, B, C, D and E
(d) A, B, C and E Only - Which of the following situations describes the ‘Non-recourse Factoring’?
A. It consists of large number of customers where the client cannot have personal knowledge.
B. The amount involved per customer is relatively substantial and financial failure can severely affect client business.
C. The clients opt for 100 percent cover under factoring rather than taking insurance policy which cover only 75-85 percent cover.
D. The clients are not protected against the risk of bad-debts.
E. It is preferred when large spread of customers with relatively low amount per customer is involved.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, D and E Only
(b) A, B and C Only
(c) A, B, D and E Only
(d) A, C and E Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Financing Decision)
A. Liquidity decision
B. Investment decision
C. Financing decision
D. Dividend decision
List II (Activity Involved)
I. Whether the firm should distribute all profits or retain them
II. Acquisition of funds to meet firm’s investment needs
III. Profitability liquidity trade-off is achieved
IV. Allocation of capital to long-term assets that would yield benefits in future
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Module 6: Strategic Management [Unit–VI]
- A firm with key internal strength but facing an unfavourable environment should pursue:
(a) Diversification strategy
(b) Turnaround strategy
(c) Defensive strategy
(d) Aggressive strategy - Which one of the following is not a corporate level strategy?
(a) Growth strategy
(b) Stability strategy
(c) Retrenchment strategy
(d) Differentiation strategy - According to resource driven strategy an expert manager expands its business in such a way that the:
(a) The company uses these resources less intensively, over which it has competitive advantage
(b) The company uses these resources more where it has competitive advantage
(c) The company uses all these resources more intensively for which its cost is less
(d) The company uses its labour resource more intensively - Which of the following defensive tactics refers to ‘White Knighť tactic used by the target company ?
A. Management offers to be acquired by a friendly company.
B. Management of target company doesn’t want to lose management.
C. The hostile acquirer may replace the management.
D. Incentive provided to acquirer not to pursue the takeover.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B and D Only
(b) C and D Only
(c) A, B and C Only
(d) A Only - Which of the following aspects are covered under functional strategies?
A. Merger and Acquisition
B. Marketing
C. Human resources
D. Purchasing
E. Diversification
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, C and D Only
(c) A, B and D Only
(d) B, C and D Only - Which of the following are the features of strategic management ?
A. It is concerned with identification and evaluation of new objectives and strategies.
B. It is concerned with goals derived from established objectives.
C. The objectives are usually evaluated primarily for corporate significance.
D. The goals are reduced to specific sub-goals for functional units.
E. The managers are concerned with policy making.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and D Only
(b) B, C and E Only
(c) A, C and E Only
(d) A, B and C Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Competency)
A. Technology
B. Surplus cash inflow
C. Material supplies
D. Skilled sales force
List II (Potential use)
I. Establish market for new products using the salesmen skill
II. Select the low cost products of quality materials
III. Product wide range of products using the same products
IV. Acquire other industries
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(b) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
Module 7: Marketing Management [Unit-VI]
- Which one of the following integration includes packaging, pricing, sales promotion and distribution?
(a) External Integration
(b) Vertical Integration
(c) Horizontal Integration
(d) Internal Integration - Which one of following is the art and science of choosing target markets and getting, keeping and growing customers?
(a) Supply chain management
(b) Customer relationship management
(c) Marketing management
(d) Promotion management - Which of the following is known as the gap between the desired and adequate service ?
(a) Point of dissatisfaction
(b) Objections by customers
(c) Orange zone in CRM
(d) Zone of tolerance - Which of the following is not part of the aspects of direct marketing?
(a) Interactive
(b) Proximity
(c) Measurability of response
(d) Non Location specific - In which mode the firm hires local manufacturers to produce the product in international marketing ?
(a) Franchising
(b) Licencing
(c) Central manufacturing
(d) Joint venture - Which of the following is not the main component of a CRM programme?
(a) Operational component
(b) Conceptual component
(c) Analytical component
(d) Maintenance component - Arrange the following steps involved in choosing the target market in the sequential order:
A. Firms distinctive capability to reserve the segment
B. Profile the traits of each segment
C. Evaluate firm’s resources
D. Look at the uniqueness of market segment
E. Examine whether spotted segment is best fit for the firm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, D, C, E
(b) B, D, A, C, E
(c) D, B, A, E, C
(d) D, B, A, C, E - Arrange the following steps of the personal selling process in the proper sequence :
A. Overcoming objections
B. Prospecting
C. Sales presentation
D. Approach
E. Pre-approach
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) E, D, C, A, B
(b) B, E, D, C, A
(c) E, D, B, A, C
(d) B, E, D, A, C - Which of the following define vertical marketing system ?
A. One entity has the control over the entire distribution chain.
B. Different manufacturers join together and utilise a common distribution system.
C. It enables the leading entity to control entire channel.
D. It can be forward or backward Integration
E. It provides freedom from individually face distribution problems.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, E Only
(b) B, D, E Only
(c) A, C, D Only
(d) C, D, E Only - Which of the following are included in the unique features of services?
A. Durability
B. Inseparability
C. Storability
D. Variability
E. Standardised
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, C, D Only
(b) A, D, E Only
(c) B, D Only
(d) A, B Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Brand Concept)
A. Brand Equity
B. Cobranding
C. Brand Portfolio
D. Branded Variants
List II (Description)
I. One company combines its brands with other company
II. A set of brand lines offered by a particular firm
III. Specific brand lines supplied to specific retailers
IV. Increase in valuation of a company due to ownership of a brand
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Retail Marketing Format)
A. Hypermarkets
B. Category killer
C. Departmental store
D. Destination store
List II (Description)
I. The specialty store which offers high discounts
II. These stores are multicategory, large discount stores
III. A store that offers facility of shopping as well as entertainment
IV. A large size store which offers groceries, clothes, medicines, toys, electronics etc.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I. B-III, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Module 8: Statistics for Management & Operations Management
Part A: Statistics for Management [Unit-VIII]
- In multiple regression analysis, multicollinearity means:
(a) Correlation among the dependent variables is high
(b) Correlation between dependent and independent variables is high
(c) Correlation among independent variables is very high
(d) Correlation between one dependent and one independent variable is less than 0.4 - Which one of the following describes the ‘Coefficient of Variation’?
(a) It measures the standard deviation relative to the mean
(b) A measure of linear association between the two variables
(c) A measure of variability computed by taking the positive square root of the variance
(d) A measure of location that is computed by finding the nth root of the product of values - Which of the following is incorrect about Exponential Probability Distribution?
(a) It is a continuous probability distribution that is useful in calculating probabilities for the time it takes to finish a task
(b) It has a property of mean=0 and Standard Deviation=1
(c) If events follow a Poisson Distribution, the time between the events must follow an exponential distribution
(d) It provides the idea what a skewed distribution looks like - Arrange the steps involved in designing a questionnaire in logical sequence :
A. Administering the Questionnaire
B. Physical presentation of the Questionnaire
C. Method of Administering the Questionnaire
D. Pilot testing the Questionnaire
E. Question Design criteria
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) B, C, A, D, E
(b) A, C, B, E, D
(c) D, A, C, B, E
(d) C, E, B, D, A - Arrange the steps that are followed in testing of a hypothesis in the logical order:
A. Making Decision
B. Compute the value of the test-statistics
C. Establish the statistical hypotheses
D. Choose a suitable level of significance and test-statistics
E. Establish a critical region
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) D, C, B, (Ε), (Α)
(b) C, D, E, (Β), A
(c) E, C, D, A, B
(d) A, C, B, E, D - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Sampling Method)
A. Stratified sampling
B. Snowball sampling
C. Cluster sampling
D. Quota sampling
List II (Description)
I. The population is divided into groups in such a way that elements within groups are heterogeneous, but there is a homogeneity between the groups
II. The sample is selected on the basis of certain demographic characteristics
III. The population is divided into groups which are mutually exclusive and collectively exhaustive
IV. Subsequent participants are referred by current sample elements
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Part B: Operations Management [Unit-VIII]
- In queuing theory, ‘Balk’ refers to which of the following?
(a) Customer shifts one queue to another in the hope of reducing time
(b) Customer doesn’t join the queue and leave the system as queue is very long
(c) Customer joins the queue for short period as they have been waiting for too long
(d) Customer fights in hope to get faster service - The purpose of Stepping-Stone Method is:
A. Assist one in moving from an initial feasible solution to an optimal solution.
B. Develop the initial solution to a transportation problem.
C. While applying, each unused cell is tested by asking what would happen to total transportation cost.
D. To evaluate the cost-effectiveness of transported goods via transportation routes not in the solution.
E. Overcome the problem of degeneracy.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, C and D Only
(b) B, C, D and E Only
(c) B, C and E Only
(d) A, B, D and E Only - Which of the following are the Key Operating characteristics for a queuing system?
A. Average Queue length
B. Average customers who renege
C. System length
D. Waiting time in the queue
E. Server idle time
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B, D and E Only
(b) C and D Only
(c) A, C, D and E Only
(d) B and E Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (ERP Phase)
A. Project planning
B. Pre-evaluation
C. Reengineering
D. Package evaluation
List II (Motive)
I. To aid in downsizing efforts
II. Package selected will decide the success or failure of the project
III. Eliminate those packages that are not suitable for business process
IV. The phase which designs the implementation process
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Module 9: International Business & Information Technology
Part A: International Business [Unit–IX]
- Which one of the following is not a FDI – related entry model of international trade ?
(a) Cooperative joint venture
(b) Portfolio investment
(c) Exporting
(d) Equity joint venture - Which one of the following is not a feature of the Eclectic Theory given by John Dunning?
(a) Internationalisation advantage
(b) Ownership advantage
(c) Location advantage
(d) Internalisation advantage - A preliminary evaluation of a business idea for the purpose of determining whether the idea is worth persuing is known as:
(a) Business plan
(b) Feasibility analysis
(c) Management audit
(d) Business budgeting - Arrange the following bodies of the WTO sequencially starting from the first level:
A. General council
B. Subsidiary bodies
C. The Ministerial conference
D. Councils for each broad area of trade
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D, C, A
(b) C, A, D, B
(c) A, C, B, D
(d) A, C, D, B - Which of the following statements are correct?
A. WTO was established on 1st January 1995.
B. WTO was established on the basis of the recommendations of the Bretton Woods conference
C. WTO was established on the basis of a proposal of the Uruguay Round of negotiations.
D. WTO was established on the recommendations of UNCTD.
E. WTO was established replacing GATT.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, D and E Only
(d) A, C and E Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Global Trade Theories) List II (Propagation)
A. Theory of Absolute Advantage I. Raymond Vernon
B. Theory of Comparative Advantage II. Heckschir and Ohlin
C. Factor Endowment Theory III. Adam Smith
D. Product Life Cycle Theory IV. Ricardo
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(d) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Part B: Information Technology [Unit-IX]
- The expression of the algorithm in a pictorial form is called as:
(a) Flowchart
(b) Flipchart
(c) Compiler
(d) Hyper text - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Computer Related Terms)
A. Algorithm
B. Compiler
C. Register
D. Router
List II (Explanation)
I. A system programme to translate a high level language programme to machine language
II. A circuit which steers messages through multiple LANS ensuring the least congested route
III. A finite sequence of precise and unambiguous instructions to solve a problem
IV. A serially interconnected group of memory cells
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Module 10: Entrepreneurship Development [Unit–X]
- Which of the following is not part of the common myths about entrepreneurs?
(a) Entrepreneurs are gamblers
(b) Entrepreneurs are born, not made
(c) Entrepreneurs are motivated primarily by money
(d) Entrepreneurs are creative - Which of the following is not one of the major objectives of the MSME?
(a) Tapping of savings
(b) Export promotion
(c) Utilisation of domestic technology
(d) Rural development - Which of the following are correct, relating to the emphasis of International Finance Corporation
(IFC) for maximising its sustainable development impact?
A. Strengthening its focus on frontier markets, particularly the SME sector.
B. Building long term partnership with the global players of the developed countries.
C. Differentiating IFC from its competitions through sustainability.
D. Addressing constraints to public sector investment in infrastructure, health and education.
E. Developing domestic financial mamets through institution building and the use of innovative financial procedure.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) A, C and E Only
(c) B, C and D Only
(d) A, C and D Only - Main components of the National Manufacturing Competitiveness Programme (NMCP) include:
A. Application of lean manufacturing.
B. Infuse equity funding in MSME.
C. Management development of MSME.
D. National campaign for investment in intellectual property.
E. Provide loans at low interest rates.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, E Only
(b) B, C, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, C, D Only - Match List-I with List-II
List I (Name of Scheme)
A. SFURTI
B. ESDP
C. ASPIRE
D. PMEGP
List II (Main Objective of Scheme)
I. To improve the skills and knowledge of entrepreneurs
II. To create a database of technologies available with various Govt./Pvt. Agencies
III. To organize traditional industries and artisans into clusters to make them competitive
IV. To generate employment opportunities in rural as well as urban areas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(c) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
A few years ago Raju, the set-up man in his department and the highest paid non-supervisor in the department, was offered a promotion to foreman. He took the foreman’s job because it paid more money and under the union contract, he could reclaim his old job if it became necessary to return to his bargaining unit. Not long after his appointment to foreman, the set-up job classification was abolished because of changed methods but Raju gave this little thought because he had proved satisfactory to the company and to himself in the foremanship job. Several months later, due to declining business, Raju was not needed as a foreman and had to return to the operative ranks. The company returned Raju to the highest paid job in the department which now was multiple tool operator. To do this, one of the multiple tool operators had to be dumped. But as soon as this happened, the union objected claiming that the deposed foreman could, according to the contract, claim his job if it existed. But since it didn’t he would have to take a lower classification job and work his way back into a seniority claiming status. The company argued that since Raju had the top paying job in the bargaining unit that the equity demanded that he be returned to the same level even though it meant a difference in responsibility as long as he was qualified to do the work, which all agreed he was.
- Which one of the following types of transfer was made in case of Raju, when he was given the post of Multiple Tool operator?
(a) Versality transfer
(b) Replacement transfer
(c) Production transfer
(d) Remedial transfer - The decision of the company in moving Raju as Multiple Tool Operation, falls under which of the following compensation equity ?
(a) External equity
(b) Internal equity
(c) Employee equity
(d) Procedural equity - The approach adopted by the company while changing the job classification from set-up man to Multiple Tool operator is:
(a) Job redesign
(b) Job enlargement
(c) Job enrichment
(d) Job rotation - Which one of the following is the reason for which the company has to lay-off one of the Multiple Tool Operations?
(a) Seasonality of business
(b) Loss of funds
(c) Decreased operations
(d) Cost-reducing measure - The relocation of Raju twice in the company falls under which one of the following?
(a) Promotion
(b) Human Resource Development
(c) Demotion
(d) Human Resource Planning
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
Exchange rate movements can also affect prices and influence inflation outcomes. A decrease in the value of the domestic currency that is a depreciation will increase inflation in two ways. First, the prices of goods and services produced overseas rise relative to those produced domestically. Consequently, consumers pay more to buy the same imported products and firms that rely on imported materials in their production processes pay more to buy these inputs. The price increases of imported goods and services contribute directly to inflation through the cost-push channel.
Second, a depreciation of the currency stimulates aggregate demand. This occurs because, exports become relatively cheaper for foreigners to buy, leading to an increase in demand for exports and higher aggregate demand. At the same time, domestic consumers and firms reduce their consumption of relatively more expensive imports and shift their purchases towards domestically produced goods and services, again leading to an increase in aggregate demand. This increase in aggregate demand puts pressure on domestic production capacity, and increases the scope for domestic firms to raise their prices. These price increase contribute indirectly to inflation through the demand pull channel.
In terms of imported inflation, the exchange rate has a greater influence on inflation through its effect on the prices of goods and services that are exported and imported known as tradable goods and services), while prices of non-tradable goods and services depend more on domestic development.
- How does a depreciation of the domestic efficiency affect inflation through imported goods and services?
(a) It decreases inflation by lowering import costs
(b) It increases inflation by raising prices of imported goods and services
(c) It increases inflation by encouraging higher domestic production
(d) It decreases inflation by reducing demand for imports - Which of the following factors contributes indirectly to inflation through the demand pull channel?
(a) Higher aggregate demand
(b) Lower production capacity
(c) Reduced import costs
(d) Increased export competitiveness - In terms of inflation, non-tradable goods and services primarily depend on which of the following?
(a) Consumer preferences
(b) Government regulations
(c) Domestic production capacity
(d) Exchange rate movements - In influencing the prices of tradable goods and services the role played by the exchange rate is:
(a) It stabilises their supply chain costs
(b) It has minimal impact on their prices
(c) It directly controls their global prices
(d) It indirectly affects their domestic prices - Which of the following channels of inflation is directly influenced by the cost of imported goods and services?
(a) Export competitiveness channel
(b) Domestic production channel
(c) Cost-push channel
(d) Demand pull channel