- Which of the following is the right description of the “Duty Free Import Authorized (DFIA)” Scheme?
(a) Duty free imports of inputs required for export production subject to certain export obligations, as stipulated in the foreign trade policy.
(b) Exemption in respect of custom duty, additional duty, education cess and anti-dumping or safeguard duties for inputs used in export.
(c) Import of capital goods at concessional rate of duty subject to an appropriate export accepted by the importer.
(d) Grant of credit on post-export basis as specified percentage of F.O.B value of export made in a freely convertible currency. - An Indian company receiving investment from outside India for issuing shares/convertible debentures/preference shares under the FDI Scheme should report the details of the inflow to the RBI. What is the time limit for reporting these details to RBI?
(a) Within 10 days from the date of receipt
(b) Within 15 days from the date of receipt
(c) Within 30 days from the date of receipt
(d) Within 45 days from the date of receipt - Which one of the following theories of attitude change states that changes in opinion can result in to an attitude change?
(a) Balance Theory
(b) Cognitive consistency Theory
(c) Reinforcement Theory
(d) Cognitive Dissonance Theory - According to posters diamond, which of the following is Not a factor of national competitive advantage?
(a) Relating and supporting industry
(b) Firm strategy, structure and rivalry
(c) Bargaining power of buyer
(d) Demand conditions - X and Y are partners sharing profit and losses in the ratio of 3 : 2. They admit Z as a new partner with 1/5 share in the profits. Calculate the new profit sharing ratio of the partners
(a) 12 : 8 : 5
(b) 12 : 8 : 6
(c) 12 : 7 : 6
(d) 12 : 3 : 7 - At the break-even point, contribution is equal to
(a) Variable cost
(b) Profit
(c) Fixed cost
(d) Sales - Which one of the following is NOT true?
(a) Capital expenditure results in extra capacity
(b) Capital expenditure results in a benefit which will last for a long time
(c) Capital expenditure results in the acquisition of a permanent asset
(d) Heavy expenditure on advertisement campaign in order to introduce a new product in the market - As per the information given below, what is the correct material yield variance?
Standard input = 100kg
Standard yield = 90 kg
Standard cost per kg of output = Rs.20
Actual input = 200 kg
Actual yield = 182 kg
Actual cost per kg of output = Rs.19
(a) Rs 40 (Favourable)
(b) Rs 400 (Favourable)
(c) Rs 40 (Unfavourable)
(d) Rs 38 (Favourable) - When the negative income effect overwhelms the positive substitution effect so much that the demand curve is positively sloped. the commodity in consumption is described as:
(a) Normal good
(b) Inferior good
(c) Giffen good
(d) Luxury good - In the extreme case of perfect price discrimination, the entire consumer surplus in the market goes:
(a) to consumer
(b) to monopoly producer
(c) as deadweight loss
(d) to capital - The situation, in which economic actors interacting with one another, each choose their best strategy, given the strategies that all the other actors have chosen, is called
(a) Nash equilibrium
(b) Prisoners dilemma
(c) Dominant strategy
(d) Predatory strategy - In the Cobb – Douglas production, Q = AKaLb, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are output elasticities of capital and labour, respectively, if a + b > 1, the underlying return to scale will be
(a) increasing
(b) decreasing
(c) constant
(d) linear - Which one of the following institutions is not a part of the World Bank Group?
(a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
(b) International Development Association (IDA)
(c) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA)
(d) The Bank of International Settlement (BIS) - According to the additional approach, what is the effect of increase in
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains unaffected
(d) Increases first and then decreases - An economic enterprise requires 90,000 units of certain item annually. The cost per unit is Rs 3. The cost per purchase order is Rs 300 and the inventory. carrying cost is Rs 6 per unit year. What is EOQ?
(a) 3000 units
(b) 1500 units
(c) 6000 units
(d) 4500 units - Dell Ltd. has Rs. 100 preference shares redeemable at a premium of 10% with 15 year maturity. The coupon rate is 12% the flotation cost is 5% and the sale price is Rs. 95. Calculate the cost of preference shares and select the correct option.
(a) 12%
(b) 12.67%
(c) 13%
(d) 13.33% - Which of the following is not a characteristic of normal distribution?
(a) The mean of the normal distribution may be negative or positive
(b) For any normal random variable x, P(x ≤ µ) = P(x ≥ µ) = 0.50
(c) For every pair of value µ and ᶷ, the curve of the distribution is bell-shaped and symmetric
(d) The kurtosis of the distribution is always less than 3 - For a Poisson distribution P (x) = (e^(-5) (5)^2)/2! the mean value is
(a) 2
(b) 5
(c) 10
(d) 25 - Which is the following is used to access the relationship between two ordinal variable?
(a) Spearman’s rho
(b) Phi
(c) Cramer’s V
(d) Chi – square - A “Spurious” relationship between two variable is expressed as:
(a) An apparent relationship that is so curious that it demands further attention.
(b) A relationship that appears to be true because each variable is related to a third one.
(c) One that is so ridiculously illogical that it cannot be possibly true.
(d) One that produces a perfect negative correlation on a scatter diagram - Which one of the following motives characterized dominant organizational climate of clubs?
(a) Extension
(b) Affiliation
(c) Dependency
(d) Achievement - Which one of the following is the description of Ego Regression Mechanism?
(a) Returning to a previous stage of psyche development
(b) Avoiding unacceptable emotions by focusing on the intellectual aspects
(c) Taking out impulses on a less threatening target
(d) Pulling into the unconscious situation - Which one of the following is not an advantage of organization structure by product in a manufacturing company
(a) Places attention and effort on product line
(b) Requires less persons with general managerial abilities
(c) Improves coordination of functional activities
(d) Permits growth and diversity of products - Which one of the following is not assumption under the McGregor’s Theory Y?
(a) The degree of commitment to objectives is in proportion to the size of the rewards associated with their achievement.
(b) Under the condition of modern’s industrial life, the intellectual potentialities of the average human being are only partially utilized.
(c) External control and the threat of punishment are the only means for producing effort toward organizational objectives.
(d) Average human being learn, under proper conditions, not only to accept responsibility but also to seek it. - The minimum capital requirement for a life insurance company in India is:
(a) Rs 300 crores
(b) Rs 200 crores
(c) Rs 500 crores
(d) Rs 100 crores - Universal bank that function as investment bank in India are regulated by:
(a) SEBI
(b) RBI
(c) Ministry of Finance
(d) IRDA - When the RBI desires to restrict expansion of credit it:
(a) increases the bank rate
(b) decreases the bank rate
(c) decreases the CRR for banks
(d) decreases the SLR for banks - Which of the following refers to default – risk intermediation
(a) Borrowing short – term funds from savers and making long – term loans to borrowers
(b) Making loans to risky by attracting saving from the savers who are risk – averse
(c) Using information gathering skills of the intermediary
(d) Pooling small amounts of savings from individual to give loans to others - The knowledge and courtesy of employees and their ability to convey trust and confidence indicates which of the following?
(a) Responsiveness
(b) Assurance
(c) Empathy
(d) Reliability - Which of the following is not true about rural markets?
(a) Growth opportunities in rural markets are driving companies to them.
(b) Information and communication technology are the drivers of change in rural markets.
(c) Socioeconomic changes are yet to happen to rural markets.
(d) Rural consumers shop for grocery, apparels, consumer durables of agri-input in nearby urban shops. - “Manufacturers of razors and cameras often price these products low and set high mark ups razor blades and film.”
As per the above statement, manufacturers of razors and cameras are using which one of the following?
(a) Captive – product pricing
(b) Two – part pricing
(c) Product – bundling pricing
(d) By – product pricing - A vertical system (VMS) combining successive stages of production and distribution under single ownership, is known as:
(a) Corporate VMS
(b) Administered VMS
(c) Contractual VMS
(d) Conventional VMS - The act throwing on board cargo and other things from the ship to safeguard it from total loss in times of peril is called:
(a) Jettisoning
(b) Moral hazards
(c) Consequential peril
(d) Reverse indemnity - The right to ‘stoppage in transit’ exercised by an unpaid seller is to
(a) recover price
(b) retain possession
(c) regain possession
(d) recover damages - Which one among the following is the duty of the Central Assistant Public Information Officer or a State Public Information Officer?
(a) To receive the applications for information on appeals under the RTI Act for forwarding the same forthwith to the CPIO/SPIO
(b) To receive thee fee for the RTI applications
(c) To assist the CPIO/SPIO is furnishing the reply to the applicant
(d) TO ensure that RTI applications are replied within the prescribed period - The relationship between a bank and its customers is basically that of:
(a) Debtor and Creditor
(b) Trustee and Beneficiary
(c) Principal and Agent
(d) Drawer and Payee - Previsions of the Vivad se Vishwas Act, 2020 does not apply in respect to tax arrears relating to which one of the following?
(a) an assessment year in respect of which prosecution has been instituted on or before the date of filling of declaration
(b) any income from agricultural land in India
(c) Section 10 (3) dealing with tax deductions
(d) Assessment under Section 80 GI of the Act - Under Section 80TTB of the Income Tax Act, which amount of benefits is available to senior citizens on account of interest income from deposits with banks or post – office or cooperative banks?
(a) Rs. 50.000
(b) Rs. 1.00.000
(c) Rs. 75.000
(d) Rs. 1.50.000 - Provisional Input Tax Credit can be utillised against
(a) Any tax liability
(b) Self – assessed tax liability
(c) Differential income tax gains
(d) Fine - Penalty for late filling of the income tax Return for individual under the income tax Act, 1961 is up to maximum of amount of:
(a) Rs. 10,000
(b) Rs. 25.00.000
(c) 10% of Gross Total Income
(d) 2% of Tax liability - Revenue expenditure of the Central government includes
(A) Debt relief to farmers
(B) Subsidy for fertilizers
(C) Grants to states
(D) Central plan allocations for rural development
(E) Central plan allocations for irrigation and flood control
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and C only - Exchange depreciation rate of one currency in relation to another currency is, approximately, equal to their
(A) Inflation rate differential
(B) Interest rate differential
(C) Growth rate differential
(D) Fiscal deficit differential
(E) Forex reverse differential
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A and B only
(d) D and E only - Which of the following activities are included under investing activities in the Cash flow Statement?
(A) Cash receipt from disposal of fixed assets (including intangible)
(B) Cash advances and loans made to third parties (other than advances and loan made by a financial enterprise)
(C) Cash receipt from repayment of advances and loan made to third parties (other than advances and loans of a financial enterprises)
(D) Cash repayments of amount borrowed
(E) Cash payment to suppliers for goods and services
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) C and D only
(d) A, C and D only - Identify cost drivers used in Activity Based Costing from the following:
(A) Volume
(B) Transaction
(C) Intensity
(D) Currency
(E) Duration
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) B, C and E only - Increasing returns to scale arise because as the scale of operation increases is cause
(A) more division of labour and specialisation
(B) productive utilisation of machinery
(C) lower procurement and logistic costs
(D) more difficulties in managing firm effectively
(E) more economies in advertising
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) A, B, C and E only - Consumer rationality implies which of the following assumptions?
(A) Non – satiety of needs
(B) Transitivity of preferences
(C) Cardinal measurement
(D) Selfish economic motive
(E) Ordinal measurement
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) A, C and E only
(d) A, B and D only - Which of the following relationship raise presumptions of undue influence?
(A) Parent and child
(B) Doctor and patient
(C) Husband and wife
(D) Fiance and fiancee
(E) Creditor and debtor
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, B and E only
(d) B, C and D only - The Internal rate of Return (IRR) method offer which of the following advantages?
(A) It recognises the time value of money
(B) It is consistent with the shareholders profit – maximization objective also
(C) It considers all cash flows occurring over the entire life of the project
(D) It generally gives the same acceptance rule as the NPV method
(E) It considers all positives NPV over the entire life of the project
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and E only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) A, D and E only - Which of the following are the off-balance sheet source (s) of finance?
(A) Securitisation
(B) Factoring
(C) Forfaiting
(D) Operational lease
(E) Credit rating
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A and E only
(b) B, C and E only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) A, B, C and D only - Which of the following factor influence portfolio beta?
(A) Portfolio size
(B) Investment longevity
(C) Trading volume
(D) Return interval (weekly vs. monthly)
(E) Portfolio leverage
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) D and E only
(d) A, B, C and D only - A contract of life insurance is a/an
(A) Indemnity
(B) Wagering agreement
(C) Contingent agreement
(D) Assurance
(E) Guarantee
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, c and E only
(b) A and D only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) C and D only - Which of the following statements are rightly expressed in relation to statistical testing?
(A) When the expected frequencies are too small, the value of X2 will be overestimated and will result in too many rejections of the null – hypothesis
(B) Mann – Whitney test assumes that populations is normal
(C) Kruskal – Wallis test is similar to one – way analysis of variance
(D) The homogeneity of variance means that the test is concerned with the hypothesis that the identical means came from the same population
(E) Students t-Distributions is by definition normal
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and E only
(d) C and D only - Which of the following are distinctive characteristics of the performing stage of the Group Building Process?
(A) The Group gains its identity
(B) Leadership is shared
(C) Disengagement from relationships
(D) Group morale is high
(E) Group loyalty is intense
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, D and E only
(d) C, D and E only - Which of the following are characteristics quadrants of the BCG matrix?
(A) Cash cows
(B) Question mark
(C) White Elephant
(D) Crown Jewel
(E) Dogs
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) C, D and C only - The following tools are used for forecasting the supply of inside candidates for human resource planning
(A) Scatter Plot
(B) Personnel replacement charts
(C) Managerial judgment
(D) Markov Analysis
(E) Trend Analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) B and D only - Which of the following statement are correct?
(A) NEFT allows the customer to transfer funds with a maximum limit of Rs. 3.00.000 per day
(B) IMPS allows to transfer funds in an Insta Payment Mode
(C) The minimum limit to transfer funds via RTGS is Rs. 2.50.000
(D) Instant Real Time payment System development by National Payment Corporation of India is UPI
(E) For clearing of cheques under positive Pay System (PPS), the minimum limit is Rs. 50.000
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) B and D only
(b) C and E only
(c) A and B only
(d) C and D only - Which of the following statement are correctly expressed in relation to capital and credit flows?
(A) Theoretically, regulators of financial markets believe that increasing capital requirement on banks could reduce the likelihood of their failure
(B) Open financial markets are solely influenced by the currency rate movements
(C) Financial inflow reflect the net flow of capital into one country in the form if increased purchases of domestic assets by foreigner
(D) Tier II Capital for banks include Perpetual Debt Instrument’s
(E) Only private banks in India have implemented Basel III guidelines
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) C, D and E only
(b) B, C and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A and B only - Holistic marketing recognized that a broad integrated perspective in necessary. Which of the following are the components of Holistic marketing
(A) Direct marketing
(B) Relationship marketing
(C) Internal marketing
(D) Socially responsible marketing
(E) Green marketing
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) C, D and E only - Which of the following statement are true for Direct marketing?
(A) Direct marketing is an interactive mode of marketing
(B) Direct marketing model is based on network marketing and multi – cultural marketing
(C) Globalisation of markets and the internet have facilitated the growth of direct marketing
(D) Future of direct marketing in India is independent of use of debit and credit cards
(E) Direct marketing activities are not location specific
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A and B only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, C and E only
(d) A, C, D and E only - An ideal advertisement (ad) campaign would ensure that
(A) The ad motivates consumers to consider purchases of the brand
(B) The ad gives maximum possible product knowledge to the costumer
(C) The ad causes the consumer to pay attention but does not distract from the intended message
(D) The ad properly reflects the consumer’s level of understanding and behaviours with the product and the brand
(E) The right consumer is exposed to the right message at the right place and at the right time
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and C only - The Information Technology Act, 2000 in India provides legal recognition to which of the following
(A) Electronic books of account is banks
(B) Electronic commerce
(C) Electronic negotiable instrument
(D) Electronic signature
(E) Electronic sale and conveyance of immovable property
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) B, D and E only
(d) A, B and D only - To make the resolution process faster and maximize the realizable value of assets under Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC), the Parliament Standing Committee has recommended strengthening India’s insolvency resolution ecosystem by
(A) A professional code of conduct for the committee of creditors
(B) Constitution of specialized National Company Law Tribunals (NCLT) benches to hear IBC matter
(C) Strengthening the role of resolution professionals
(D) Digitising IBC platforms
(E) Strengthening and promotion of Asset Reconstruction Companies
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and D only - In which of the following method, a contract is said to be discharged by mutual consent?
(A) Novation
(B) Recission
(C) Remission
(D) Alteration
(E) Accord and Satisfaction
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) A, B, C, D and E only - Duties of bailor include
(A) Take care of goods
(B) Bear extraordinary expenses
(C) Return accretion to the goods
(D) Indemnify the bailee
(E) Disclose known faults
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and C only - Expenses that are not deductible under Section 58 of the Indian Income Tax for computing the income chargeable under the head “Income From Other Sources”.
(A) Personal expenses
(B) Interest payable outside India on which tax has not been paid or deducted at source
(C) Wealth tax
(D) Commission for realizing dividend income or interest on securities
(E) Expenses which are not of capital nature like repairs, depreciation on plant and insurance premium
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and D only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) A, B, D and E only
(d) A, B, C, D and E only - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Name of theory of International Trade Description
A. Heckscher-Ohlin Theory I. The ability of a nation to produce the foods more efficiently and effectively than any other country
B. Country Similarity
Theory II. Theory stating that trade occurs between nations that have similar characteristics such a economic, geography and cultural
characteristics
C. Theory of Mercantilism III. The theory that a nation will export the goods whose production requires intensive use of that nation’s relatively abundant and cheap
factors and import goods when production requires intensive use of its scare and expensive factors
D. Absolute Advantage
Theory IV. Theory that aims at accumulating financial wealth in term of gold by
encouraging
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Ind As Topic (Subjects)
A. Ind As 37 I. Insurance contracts
B. Ind As 104 II. Inventories
C. Ind As 2 III. Provisions, Contingent Liabilities and Contingent Assets
D. Ind As 19 IV. Employee Benefits
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Cost Concepts Description
A. Explicit cost I. costs that do not require any outlay of money by the firm
B. Implicit cost II. A cost that has already been committed and cannot be recovered
C. Total cost III. costs that require any outlay of money by the firm
D. Sunk cost IV. Market value of all input that a firm uses in production
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Type of Bonds Description
A. Euro bonds I. bonds denominated in US dollar and issued in the USA
B. Global bonds II. bonds denominated in a foreign currency and are offered for simultaneous placement in different countries
C. Yankee bonds III. When the bonds issued in a foreign country and are denominated in a currency other than the currency of the country where the bonds are
issued
D. Samurai bonds IV. Bonds denominated in Japanese Yen and issued in Japan
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Sampling methods Description of situation
A. Multi-stage sampling I. Specified number of respondents in best position to provide the
desired information
B. Systematic sampling II. Heterogeneous sub-populations
C. Judgment sampling III. Widely spread population and random sampling not possible
D. Stratified sampling IV. Element of population arranged in some order
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
- Match List I with List II
List I List I
Interest rates Description
A. policy Rate I. RBI lending rate to commercial banks without security
B. Repo Rate II. RBI lending rate when commercial bank borrow money by purchasing
securities issued by RBI
C. MCLR III. Internal benchmark rate for financial institutions and banks
D. Bank Rate IV. Rate established by RBI to influence the main monetary variable in
the economy
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Market Expansion Strategies Description
A. Market Penetration I. New product, New markets
B. Market Development II. Existing markets, Existing product
C. Product Development III. Existing product, New markets
D. Diversification IV. Existing markets, New product
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Insurance contracts Description
A. Marine insurance I. Both at the time of contract as well at the loss of subject matter
B. Life insurance II. throughout the contract of insurance
C. Fire insurance III. At the time of loss of the subject matter
D. General insurance IV. At the time of insurance contract effected
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II) - Match List I with List II
List I List I
Tax deductions Relevant Sections
A. Deduction in respect of rent paid I. 80 GGC
B. Deduction in respect of contribution given by company to political parties II. 80 GG
C. Deduction in respect of contribution given by any person to political parties III. 80 GGA
D. Deduction in respect of certain donations of scientific research IV. 80 GGB
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) - In relation to the export from India, arrange the following step of port procedure and customs clearance sequentially:
(A) C & F agent present mate’s receipt to shipping company
(B) Shipping company issues bill of landing. C & F agent dispatches bill of landing and other documents to the importer
(C) C & F agent receives documents from the exporter, takes delivery of cargo and stores cargo in warehouse till shipment
(D) Master of vessel issues mate’s receipt to shed superintendent of port
(E) Cargo brought to the port shed for loading
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) C, E, D, B, A
(b) C, E, D, A, B
(c) E, C, D, A, B
(d) C, D, E, A, B - The following are contextual auditing with wider intensities
(A) Special Audit
(B) Internal Audit
(C) Internal Check
(D) Annual Audit
(E) Interim Audit
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) C, B, E, D, A
(b) B, C, D, A, E
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) B, C, A, E, D - Sequence the following steps in the process of estimating demand equation using regression analysis
(A) Obtaining data on each variable or its proxy
(B) Estimating slope coefficient
(C) Model specification
(D) Deciding on the functional form of the demand equation
(E) Evaluation of regression results
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) C, A, D, B, E
(b) D, C, B, A, E
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) D, A, C, B, E - Arrange the following in the logical sequence of the international arbitrage operation.
(A) Identify an opportunity
(B) Purchase the asset
(C) Review the transaction cost
(D) Pocket the profit
(E) Sell the asset
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, C, B, E, D
(b) C, A, D, B, E
(c) B, A, D, E, C
(d) B, D, A, C, E - Arrange the following steps in sequence for testing a statistical hypothesis
(A) Test statistic
(B) Framing the hypothesis
(C) Collecting the sample data
(D) Level of significance
(E) Obtaining results and taking decisions
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) B, D, C, A, E
(b) C, B, A, D, E
(c) B, C, A, D, E
(d) A, C, B, E, D - Arrange the following steps OF employee training in the proper sequence:
(A) Familiarize the employee with equipment, materials, tools, and trade terms
(B) Create interest and find out what the employee already knows about the job
(C) Explain why the employee is being trained
(D) Place the trainee/employee as close to the normal working position as possible
(E) Explain the whole job and relate it to some other job which the employee already knows
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) C, E, B, A, D
(b) C, B, E, D, A
(c) B, E, C, D, A
(d) E, A, C, D, B - Risk management process follows the following steps in which logical sequence?
(A) Selection of appropriate risk model for analysis
(B) Identification of risk variable
(C) Determination of frequency and severity of risk
(D) Feedback on the risk management process
(E) Application of a suitable risk instrument
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) E, A, B, C, D
(b) C, B, A, D, E
(c) B, C, A, E, D
(d) A, B, C, D, E - Arrange the following purchases made by a customer as per Maslow’s hierarchy of needs theory starting with the lower order needs.
(A) Purchase of house
(B) Purchase of an expensive car
(C) Taking a club membership
(D) Enrolling in a learn-by-yourself course
(E) Purchase of bathing soap
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) E, A, B, C, D
(b) A, E, C, B, D
(c) E, A, C, B, D
(d) A, E, B, C, D - Arrange the following decision outcomes under the Indian Consumer Protection Act
(A) Removal of defects
(B) Impose cost on parties
(C) Return of price paid
(D) Discontinuation of unfair practices
(E) Compensation to consumer
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B, C, E, D
(b) A, C, E, D, B
(c) C, D, A, B, E
(d) D, E, B, C, A - Steps involved in computation of tax on agriculture income in India are followed in which sequence?
(A) Add basic exemption limit to Net agriculture income and calculate tax
(B) Deduct rebate u/s 87A from the total income
(C) Add Health Cess
(D) Add agriculture and Non – agriculture income and calculate tax on total income
(E) Calculate difference of tax in both computation
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, D, B, C, E
(b) A, C, D, B, E
(c) A, D, C, E, B
(d) D, A, E, B, C - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Thousands of small firm in developing countries have closed their shutters because of the competition from large MNCs.
Statement II : MNCs have played a significant role in the development of poor countries by transfer of technology, introducing best management practices and help I improving productivities
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement II is true but Statement I false - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Economic profits is smaller than accounting profit.
Reason (R) : Accounting profit = Revenue – Explicit costs
Economic Profit = Revenue – Explicit costs – Implicit costs
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : The stage in the manufacturing process where joint products are separately Identifiable is called split – off points.
Statement II : The production costs incurred after the split are called separately costs.
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement II is true but Statement I false - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Long term capital loss can only be set off against the long term capital gains.
Statement II : Long – term capital gains exceeding Rs. one lakh are subject to tax at the rate of 10% with indexation and at 20% without indexation
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II correct - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : One of the most difficult product to sell is ‘life insurance’ such that one who sells life insurance can sell anything under the sun.
Reason (R) : What is sought to be marketed in life insurance is an assurance whereby payments of money is assured upon death or the happening of any contingency dependent upon
human life.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Read the passage below carefully and answer the five question that follow
The inventions of the office – from the Latin opus (work) + facere (do) = officium (performance of work) – was necessitated by the inability of work to be done remotely. Until very recently, the
prevalent technology was simply not available or very limited to allow work away from office. if you had to conduct stocktaking, copy document’s or engage in a brainstorming session, one had to
be physically close to the tools or work and co-workers. Even as the technology was becoming increasingly available. it was the forced disruption of pandemic that finally showed that office, like
the stock exchange trading floor, as a shared physical – only space was no longer essential to carry out work. Today as Covid restrictions thankfully recede, the push that had become the shove of
working from home (WFH) Is becoming a nudge for working form anywhere (WFA). Neither can all work be conducted WFA nor to all workers prefer remote working. Several reason for the primacy of the “face-to-face” work model are trotted out – ‘water cooler’ engagement; ideas flying ‘better’ at corporeally attended meeting: company values welded only under ‘one roof, one team. norms. But studies, including pre – pandemic ones conducted by the like of Harvard Business School’s Prithiwiraj Chaudhary, have shown that WFA is a ‘win-win for Workers, Companies and for Society’. WFA slashes time and energy expanded in commutes; allow workers the choice of their work surroundings that may actually improve their quantitative and qualitative output; provides less crowded space for those who choose offices as their comfort work zone. Most importantly, for companies, it allows HFA – hiring from anywhere, thereby breaking the talent pool distance barrier. The new hybrid work culture is still a work – in progress. Floor managers will have to be trained to manage a different kind of floor. Company values will need to flourish in a digital – deeper environment. The idea of work – life balance itself has to be rejigged. but the bottom line is work optimization. For which WFA, without the stress of a pandemic around, makes damm good pitch.
- Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Work from anywhere is only possible in case of employees working independently
Reason (R) : Brainstorming sessions are possible in the case of work form anywhere
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Work from Office was preferred because of
(A) Water cooler engagement
(B) Ideas fly better at corporeally attended meetings
(C) Promotes one team norm
(D) Improves work-life balance
(E) inability of work to be done remotely
Choose the correct answer from the options given blow:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, B, C and E only
(d) A, B and E only - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Work from home concept was not initiated in the past because no one had conceptualised it.
Statement II : It was not possible to work from home in the past.
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II correct - Which one of the following is NOT true for work from anywhere?
(a) It reduce time and energy expended on commuting
(b) It increases talent pool distance barrier
(c) It allows an employee to choose his work surrounding
(d) It improves quality and quantity of work output - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : With ease in the stress of the pandemic around, the relevance of work from anywhere will reduce
Statement II : For the new hybrid work culture to prevail. companies will have to invest more in technology
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II correct
Read the passage below carefully and answer the five question that follow
Capital flows, exchange rates and the interest rates are cause of immediate concern to the national economies. Central banks of various countries have been using a variety of methods with the excessive capital inflows. Foreign portfolio investment have a direct and indirect impact on exchange rates, valuation of traded assets and yield of various government and corporate securities. RBI, in the post – pandemic scenario and the recent Russia – Ukraine was situation is working on multiple options to stabilize the exchanges rate by protecting both the exporters and importers. One way which RBI adopts to maintain a desirable level of exchange rate is to mop up nets exchange assets from schedule commercial banks in exchanges of domestic currency (Rs.) assets. The liquidity flows are. in essence, inflationary. RBI has project a comfortable GDP rate for the current fiscal and believes a reasonable level of CPI inflation as 5.3%. The retail inflation, according to the RBI governor, recently is likely to be 4.5% in 2023 fiscal. With this perspective the repo rate and reverse repo rate remain at 4% and 3.35%, respectively since May 22, 2020, A balancing act between economic growth and inflation is visible. Though the RBI rates are consistent, the burden on borrowers for the short – term and long – term, is still unpredictable.
- The primary purpose of the monetary policy of RBI is to maintain
(a) Wealth
(b) Exchange Rate Volatility
(c) Income Equality
(d) Stability of Prices - The stance of a monetary policy wherein the interest rates may move either way, upwards or downwards, is called
(a) Accommodative stance
(b) Neutral stance
(c) Calibrated stance
(d) Hawkish stance - An increase in investment is most likely to be caused by
(a) Decreases in marginal propensity to consume
(b) Expectations of lower GDP
(c) Lowering of interest rates
(d) Writing – off of Non – performing Assets - Quantitative easing by the Central bank implies
(a) Selling of assets by the Central bank
(b) Lowering of interest rates for commercial bank lending
(c) Purchase of assets by the Central bank
(d) Central bank reducing the policy rate - Changes in foreign portfolio investments in directly related to
(a) Money demanded
(b) Exchange rates
(c) Prices
(d) Circulation of money