- Which of the one following non-tariff barrier is to be adequately addressed by India while singing FTA with any country that has potential to import fruits, vegetables and other plant based products from India?
(a) Phytosanitary regulations
(b) Sanitary regulations
(c) Complex Registration
(d) Restrictive customs procedure - According to the Heckscher-Ohlin theory, which one of the following are correct?
(a) Trade should ta ke place among countries that have greater differences in their factor endowments.
(b) A country with a relatively cheaper cost of labour would export labour – intensive products
(c) Country benefits from international trade even if it is less efficient than order nations
(d) Countries with the proximity of geographical locations would have great trade compared to the distant ones. - Which one of the following FTA was signed in February, 20022 and came into force in May, 2022?
(a) AI-ECTA Australia – India Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement
(b) India – UAE Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA)
(c) India – Nepal Treaty of Trade
(d) India – Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) - The Government of India on 27-9-22 extended the existing Foreign Trade Policy (2015-20) upto which one of the following on account of volatile global economic and geo-political situation and currency fluctuations
(a) December, 2022
(b) March, 2022
(c) September, 2023
(d) December, 2023 - Which of the following Ind AS is related to “The effects of Changes in Foreign Exchange Rate”?
(a) Ind AS 19
(b) Ind AS 115
(c) Ind AS 103
(d) Ind AS 21 - Policy of ‘Playing safe’ followed by the accounted is based on which one of the following concept.
(a) Dual Aspect Concept
(b) Conversation Conventions
(c) Money Measurement Concept
(d) Realization Concept - X and Y are partners in a firm sharing. profits in the ratio 4:5. X surrenders 1/4 of his share and Y surrenders 1/5 of his share in favour of Z, the new partner. What will be the new profit sharing ratio of the firm’s partners?
(a) 3 : 4 : 2
(b) 55 : 44 : 81
(c) 4 : 5 : 2
(d) 44 : 55 : 81 - Net profit after taxes of a firm is Rs.1, 00,000 and its fixed interest charges on long term debt are Rs.20,000. What is the interest coverage ratio if the rate on income tax is 60%
(a) 13 times
(b) 13.5 times
(c) 12.5 times
(d) 5 times - The study of unemployment is the subject matter of which one of the following economies?
(a) Descriptive Economics
(b) Normative Economics
(c) Micro Economics
(d) Macro Economics - Which one of the following commodities has the most inelastic demand?
(a) Cigarette
(b) Soap
(c) Ice – cream
(d) Salt - ‘Sales Revenue Maximization’ as an alternate objective of business firms was postulated by whom of the following?
(a) O.E. Williamson
(b) Cyert and March
(c) W.J. Buamol
(d) K.W. Rothschild - Which one of the following is correct regarding the slope and the point elasticity on all the points on a rectangular hyperbola shaped demand curve of a product?
(a) Slope remain the same while point elasticity goes on changing.
(b) Slope goes on changing while point elasticity remains the same
(c) Both slope and point elasticity remain the same.
(d) Both slope and point elasticity go on changing - The current market price of a company’s share is RS.90 and the expected dividend per share next year is Rs.4.50. If dividends are expected to grow at a constant rate of 8 percent, the shareholders required rate of return is:
(a) 5%
(b) 8%
(c) 13%
(d) 20% - The Kinked-shaped revenue curve of a firm related to which one type of market structure?
(a) Perfect Competition
(b) Oligopoly
(c) Monopoly
(d) Monopolistic Competition - ‘Value-additivity principle’ implies in which one of the following methods of capital budgeting?
(a) Pay back period method
(b) NPV method
(c) IRR method
(d) ARR method - The risk free rate is 6 per cent, the market risk premium is 9 per cent and the beta of share is 1.54, then what is cost of equity?
(a) 23%
(b) 19%
(c) 13%
(d) 20% - While averaging rates and ratios where time factors is variable and the act being performed is constant, which one of the following measures of Central Tendency is appropriate?
(a) Arithmetic average
(b) Mode
(c) Harmonic mean
(d) Geometric mean - If two regression coefficients are 0.8 and 1.2, which one the following is the value of coefficient of correlation
(a) 0.97
(b) 0.96
(c) 1.00
(d) 0.80 - Which one of the following statement are true?
(a) For a symmetrical distribution β1 = 0
(b) Kurtosis means ‘lack of symmetry’.
(c) β2 can be negative
(d) Skewnes studies the flatness or peakedness of the distribution - Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) Algebraic sum of deviations taken from arithmetic Mean in zero
(b) The sum of absolute deviation taken from Median is the largest
(c) Standard deviation is always less than range
(d) The sum of the square of deviation of a given set of observation is minimum, when taken about the arithmetic mean - Which one of the following is referent source of power?
(a) Perception or belief that the manager has some special knowledge
(b) Manager’s desire to identify with or imitate the subordinate
(c) Ability of the manager to reward the subordinate for obeying orders
(d) Ability of the manager to punish the subordinate for not obeying orders - Which one of the following is not an advantage of the line organization?
(a) It ensures excellent discipline
(b) It fixes responsibility for the performance of tasks
(c) It is suitable for big organizations
(d) It is not expensive - A scale that measures a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for the job in question is known as:
(a) Test validity
(b) Criterion validity
(c) Content validity
(d) Construct validity - Training technique which teaches the importance of resolving matters is known as:
(a) build-in-Tension
(b) Shadowing
(c) Tag Teams
(d) Mirroring - When Central Bank conducts a sale of securities, the cash reserve of commercial banks shall:
(a) Increase at slow rate
(b) Decrease
(c) Remain constant
(d) Increase the fast rate - ‘Average clause’ in insurance is applicable for which one of the following cases?
(a) Double Insurance
(b) Re – Insurance
(c) Over Insurance
(d) Under Insurance - ABC ventures is private equity investor considering investing Rs.1000 million in the equity of XYZ td. ABC ventures requires a return of 30% on investment with planned holding period of 5 years. The likely debt of XYZ ltd. will be Rs.1000 million and cash balance of Rs.300 million with a projected EBBITDA of Rs.1500 million of the year 5. The desired ownership share of ABC Ventures in XYZ Ltd. given FVF0.30.5=3.317, will be
(a) 37.13%
(b) 30.00%
(c) 37.90%
(d) 7.13% - One of the assumptions in Black-Scholes option pricing model is that underlying asset prices are
(a) Equi-distributed
(b) Marginally distributed
(c) Log-normally distributed
(d) Normally distributed - In which one of the following service products, price sensivity of the customers is low?
(a) Car rentals
(b) Transport
(c) Medical services
(d) Retailing - Which one of the following is true while segmenting consumer markets on demographic basis?
(a) Low predictability of consumer choice behaviour and high cost of measurement
(b) Low predictability of consumer choice behaviour and low cost of measurement
(c) High predictability of consumer choice behaviour and low cost of measurement
(d) High predictability of consumer choice behaviour and high cost of measurement - Which one of the following is not market oriented definition of a business?
(a) We run a railroad
(b) We help improve office productivity
(c) We supply energy
(d) We distribute information - In which one of the following concepts, a buyer is passively involved in an exchange transaction and he accepts whatever is offered to him by a marketer?
(a) Production concepts
(b) Product concepts
(c) Selling concepts
(d) Marketing concepts - If invoice discounting is not confidential in nature, the custom ers of the client are advised to make payment directly to the factor. This facility, when offered with a non – recourse, is known as-
(a) Agency Factoring
(b) Protected invoice discounting
(c) Full factoring
(d) Odd line factoring - The practice of forging a return address on e-mail so that the recipient is fooled into revealing private information is termed as:
(a) Hacking
(b) Cracking
(c) Dumpstordiving
(d) Spoofing - If anyone fraudulently or dishonestly makes use of the electronic signature, password or any other unique identification feature of any other person the under which section of IT Act 2000, punishment shall be given?
(a) Section 63
(b) Section 66B
(c) Section 66C
(d) Section 67B - From Dec. 1, 2022 which body handles all complaints related to profiteering under Goods and Service Tax (GST)?
(a) National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA)
(b) Niti – Aayog
(c) Competition Commission of India (CCI)
(d) GST Council - Section 80 GGC of Income Tax Act is related with which one of the following?
(a) Deduction in respect of contribution given by any company to political parties
(b) Deduction in respect of contribution given by any person to political parties
(c) Deduction in respect of rent paid
(d) Deduction in respect of certain donation for scientific research - Which one of the following is not correct to Tonnage Tax System?
(a) It is a scheme of presumptive taxation
(b) It is applicable for the taxation of income derived from shipping activities
(c) It is applicable for both Indian as well as foreign companies
(d) Computation of tonnage income is covered U/S 115 - Tax on declared dividend is paid by whom?
(a) Shareholders
(b) Manager
(c) Receiver of the dividend
(d) Company - Which one of the following is not related to income Tax in India?
(a) Taxpayer Identification Number (TIN)
(b) Dearness Allowance (DA)
(c) Leave Travel Allowance (L.T.A)
(d) Tax Deduction and Collection Account Number (TAN) - After COVID-19, which of the following are the upskilling enablers for woman in India?
(A) Introduction of electric vehicles
(B) Flexible work opportunities
(C) Work from home
(D) Need to stay relevant, especially in technology
(E) Willingness to return to work
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) B, C, D and E only - E-commerce and large retailers in India bet big on mega consumption events on which of the following days?
(A) Republic day
(B) Independence day
(C) Black Friday
(D) Cyber Monday
(E) Akshya Tritiya
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) C and D only
(c) A, B and E only
(d) A, B, C, D and E only - Which of the following are not assumption of Marginal Costing?
(A) The total cost can be segregated into fixed and variable component.
(B) Fixed costs per unit of production remains constant
(C) Variable cost remains constant per unit of output
(D) The selling price per unit remains unchanged.
(E) Variable cost is variable per unit.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) B and E only
(c) C and D only
(d) B and C only - Which of the following transaction are related to Financing Activities?
(A) Share issue for cash
(B) Dividend distributed to shareholders
(C) Sale of machinery
(D) Redemption of debentures
(E) Provision for depreciation
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A and E only
(b) A and C only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, B, C and D only - Which of the following statement are correct?
(A) A monopolist can change any price to maximize profits.
(B) The slope of monopoly’s MR curve is twice that of AR curve.
(C) A necessary condition for monopoly’s long-run equilibrium is AC = AR = MC MR
(D) A monopolist is in equilibrium where MC=MR
(E) Equilibrium price of a monopolist is always higher than that of a competitive firm.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) B, D and E only
(d) C, D and E only - Which of the following factors hinder the formation and sustainability of Cartels?
(A) Less number of firm in the industry
(B) Presence of differentiated products
(C) Different cost structure
(D) Low frequency sales coupled with huge amount of output.
(E) Absence of monopolies and restrictive trade practices
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) B, C and D only
(b) A, D and E only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) B, C and E only - Which of the following factors determine the requirements of working capital of a firm?
(A) Nature of Business
(B) Technology and manufacturing Policy
(C) Management Skills
(D) Credit Policy
(E) Market and Demand Conditions.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) A, B, D and E only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B and E only - Which of the following are related to primary capital market?
(A) IPO
(B) Long Term loans
(C) Venture Capital
(D) Letters of Credit
(E) Participation Certificates
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, B and C only
d() A, D and E only - Which among the following are the measure of Central Tendency or Measures of Location?
(A) Mean
(B) Range
(C) Mode
(D) Median
(E) Variance
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and E only
(b) C, D and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) B, C and D only - In which of the following practical situations, Poisson Distribution can be used?
(A) Number of customer arriving at the super market per hour.
(B) Number of typographical error per page in a typed material.
(C) Number of accident taking place per day on a busy road.
(D) Dice throwing problems.
(E) Numbers of defective material say. blades. etc. in a packing manufactured by a good concern.
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) B, D and E only
(b) A, B, C and E only
(c) A, C, D and E only
(d) A, B, C and D only - Which of the following attributes are true in systems approach to performance appraisal?
(A) Low degree of formality
(B) Occasional appraisal frequency
(C) Individual-oriented reward practices
(D) Facilitative leadership practices
(E) Problem solving as primary goal.
Choose the appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A, D and E only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, C, D and E only - Which of the following are the distinct features of the Principles of Management?
(A) Flexibility
(B) Universal Application
(C) Principle are absolute. not relative
(D) Based on situation
(E) Derived out of experience.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C and E only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and E only
(d) A, B, D and E only - According to henry Fayol, which of the following are the Principle of management?
(A) Discipline
(B) Decentralization
(C) Unity of Command
(D) Equity
(E) Instability of Tenure
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, D only
(b) A, B, C, E only
(c) A, B, D only
(d) B, C, E only - Which of the following are the functions of Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Issue of Currency
(B) Accepting Deposits
(C) Banker of Government
(D) Bankers Bank
(E) Credit Control
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) B, and C only
(b) A and D only
(c) A, B, C and D only
(d) A, C, D and E only - For ongoing maintenance of regulatory capital, which of the following risks were covered by pillar-I Minimum Capital Requirement?
(A) Credit Risk
(B) Financial Risk
(C) Operation Risk
(D) Market Risk
(E) Reputation Risk
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) B, C and D only
(d) A, C and D only - Which of the following are the advantage of Mobile Banking?
(A) Insecure
(B) Fraud reduction
(C) Time saving
(D) Separates internet required
(E) Increased efficiency.
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) B, C and E only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) B, D and E only - Which among the following are to be determined to estimate current market demand?
(A) Total Market Potential
(B) Area Market Potential
(C) Analyze past sales
(D) Sales force’s input
(E) Market share
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, and E only
(b) B, D and E only
(c) A, C and D only
(d) A, B and E only - Which among the following are social factor influencing costumer’s behaviour?
(A) Culture
(B) Social class
(C) Groups
(D) Family
(E) Roles and status
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a)A, D and E only
(b) B, C, D and E only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) B and C only - Which among the following are true when an organization uses intensive distribution of its products?
(A) Customers are moderate in number
(B) Widespread market coverage
(C) Customer are brand-conscious
(D) Mass advertising
(E) Pleasant shopping conditions
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) B, D and E only
(b) A, B and C only
(c) B and D only
(d) B, C and D only - As per RTI Act, 2005, which of the following are exempted from disclosure [U/S 8(1)]? (A) Information, the disclosure of which cause a breach of privilege of Parliament or the state
Legislature.
(B) The monthly remuneration received by employee
(C) Information received in confidence from foreign government
(D) Information which relates to personal information the disclosure of which has no relationship to any public activity or interest
(E) A statement of the categories of documents that are held by public authority or under its control.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B and E only
(b) A, C and D only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) B, C and D only - An instrument it be called ‘Negotiable’ as per Negotiable Instrument Act, 1881, if it process which of the following characteristic
(A) Can be transferred infinitum
(B) Having minimum lock-in period
(C) Freely transferable
(D) The holder cannot sue in his own name
(E) Holders title free from defects.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(1) A, C and E only
(2) A, B and E only
(3) B, D and E only
(4) A, B, C and E only - Intellectual capital of an enterprise includes its:
(A) Processes
(B) Designs
(C) Relationships developed with its customers and suppliers
(D) Internet domain names
(E) Copyright
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B, C and D only
(b) B, C and E only
(c) C, D and E only
(d) A, B, C, D and E only - Income received and accrued or arisen outside India from a business controlled in or a profession set up in India.is taxed in the hands of which of the following?
(A) Every citizen of India
(B) Domicile India
(C) Ordinary Resident
(D) Non-Ordinary Resident
(E) Non- Resident
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A and C only
(b) A and B only
(c) C and D only
(d) C, D and E only - Which of the following are related to tax – evasion?
(A) Claiming bogus expense and losses
(B) Hiding capital nature of profits
(C) Showing sales transactions
(D) Showing excess transactions
(E) Showing real income and expenses
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A and B only
(b) A, B and D only
(c) A, B and C only
(d) C and E only - Which of the following condition should be fulfilled by an Assessee to avail deduction u/s. 91 Income Tax Act, 1961?
(A) The Assessee is a tax resident in India during the relevant previous year
(B) The income accrues or arises to him/her outside India
(C) There is an agreement for relief from double taxation between India and the other country when the income has accrued or arisen.
(D) The Assessee has paid tax on his/her foreign income in the foreign country
(E) India does not have any agreement for relief form double taxation with the country
Choose the most appropriate answer form the options given below:
(a) A and E only
(b) B and C only
(c) A, B, D and E only
(d) A, B and E only - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(COP 27) LIST II
(COP 27 Action Plan)
A. Mitigation I. Promote climate know-how solutions
B. Capitalize II. Empowering all stakeholders to engage in climate action
C. Technology III. Phase down unabated coal power
D. Capacity Building IV. Creation of “loss and damage fund”Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Issue) LIST II
(Description)
A. Cut-off I. Assets. Liabilities and Equity balances exist at the end of the period.
B. Classification II. Transaction and events have been recorded in proper accounts
C. Occurrence III. Whether all assets and liabilities are reported on the appropriate period
D. Existence IV. Transaction recognized in the financial statements have occurred and relate to the entity.Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
LIST IIA. Margin of Safety I. Profit x sales / PV Ratio
B. Break Even Point II. Difference between total revenue and total variable costs
C. P V Ratio III. Total Sales-Total Variable cost / Total Sales
D. contribution IV. Equality between contribution and total fixed costs.Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(b) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III) - 69. Match List I with List II
LIST I
LIST II A. Finance Lease I. The lessee and the owner of the equipment are two different entities.
B. Operating Lease II. Lessee sells an asset for cash to a prospective lessor and then leases back the same assets
C. Sale and Lease back III. The lessor does not transfer all the risk and reward incidental to the ownership of the assets.
D. Direct Lease IV. The lessor transfer substantially all the risks and rewards incidental to the ownership of the assets to the lesseeChoose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Type of Test) LIST II
(Subject matter of the problem)
A. Kruskal – Wallis I. Parametric test to compare means of more than two population groups
B. Z – test II. Non – parametric test to compare means of more than two population groups
C. Anova test III. Non – parametric test to test the goodness of fit
D. Chi – square test IV. Testing the difference between means of two sample groups.Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Characteristic) LIST II
(Leadership Mode)
A. Source of power I. Power extension
B. Concept of power II. Empowerment
C. Dominant need III. Bulding culture
D. Managing style IV. Multiplying
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Application narratives) LIST II
(Statistical distributions)
A. Tine interval between successive arrival of customers in a queue I. Pareto distribution
B. Distribution of income, property and certain human abilities in a capitalistic society II. Poisson distribution
C. Movement of stock prices and distributing of income in a socialistic society III. Exponential distribution
D. Distribution of rare events i. e the probability of occurrence is very small but the number of trial are very large IV. Lognormal distributionChoose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(VI) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Sales Promotion method) LIST II
(Goal)
A. Stock allowance I. To incentivize customers to try a new product
B. Premiums II. To incentivize stores to try new product
C. Sampling III. To incentivize stores to keep selling a product
D. Adverting IV. To incentivize customers to increase their consumption
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(The sale of Goods Act, 1930)
(Condition) LIST II
(Section)
A. Sale by Auction I. 15
B. Breach of Warranty II. 27
C. Sale by Description III. 13
D. Transfer of Title IV. 64
Choose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV) - Match List I with List II
LIST I
(Income Tax Return) LIST II
(relationship with)
A. ITR – 2 I. For a company other than a company claiming exemption under section 11
B. ITR – 6 II. For presumptive business income covered u/s 44 AD and 44 AE
C. ITR – 7 III. For a person (including a company who are required to furnish return u/s 139 (4A) or 139 (4B) or139 (4C) or139 (4D)
D. ITR – 4 (Sugam) IV. For individual and HUF not having on income for business and professionChoose the correct answer from the option given blow:
(a) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
(c) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(d) (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III) - Sequence the following different settlement stages of the WTO dispute settlement System.
(A) Retaliation
(B) Implementation
(C) Panel Review
(D) Appellate
(E) Consultations
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) D, E, A, C, B
(b) E, D, C, A, B
(c) E, C, D, B, A
(d) D, E, C, A, B - Arrange in proper sequence the following benefits available to Information System Auditor who uses CATT:
(A) Check susceptibility to threat. Much of the accounting is done through cloud accounts or other online system
(B) Evaluating the system
(C) Data security
(D) Bolsters controls
(E) Develop IT Governance
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) E, D, C, B, A
(b) C, B, A, D, E
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) B, A, E, C, D - Arrange the following steps in proper sequence to forecast the demand for a product systematically and scientifically.
(A) Making choice of method for demand forecasting
(B) Estimation and interpretation of results
(C) Specifying the objective
(D) Determining the time perspective
(E) Collection of data and data adjustment.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) C, A, E, D, B
(b) C, D, A, E, B
(c) A, C, D, B, E
(d) E, D, C, A, B - Arrange the following steps involved in the budgeting in a proper sequence:
(A) Screening the proposal
(B) Evaluation of various proposals
(C) Identification of Investment proposal
(D) Performance review
(E) Implementing the proposal.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, B, D, E
(b) C, A, D, B, E
(c) C, A, B, E, D
(d) A, B, C, D, E - Arrange the following steps involved in a research process to carry out orderly and systematic research:
(A) Formulating hypothesis
(B) Collection and analysis of data
(C) Defining research problem
(D) Prepare research design
(E) Interpretation and report writing.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) D, A, C, E, B
(b) C, A, D, B, E
(c) A, B, C, D, E
(d) C, B, A, E, D - Arrange the following examples of human needs in the hirearchy of their increasing importance.
(A) Insurance for accident’s
(B) Recognition and respect from others
(C) Food and shelter provisions
(D) Accomplishing distinction in chosen area by maxmising potential.
(E) Developing meaningful relations with others.
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, E, B, D
(b) C, A, B, E, D
(c) A, C, E, D, B
(d) C, A, E, B, D - Arrange the following industry verticals in the ascending order of their weightages in the index of core industries in india.
(A) Coal
(B) Cement
(C) Refinery Products
(D) Electricity
(E) Steel
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, D, B, E
(b) E, B, D, A, C
(c) B, A, E, D, C
(d) B, E, D, C, A - Arrange the following stages of buying decision process in the logical sequence.
(A) Comprehension
(B) Adoption
(C) Need recognition
(D) Legitimization
(E) Attitude forming
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, C, D, E, B
(b) C, A, B, D, E
(c) C, A, E, D, B
(d) C, E, D, A, B - Arrange the intellectual Capital Management Process Flow Stages in a proper sequential order:
(A) Index
(B) Capture
(C) Replicate
(D) Identify
(E) Store
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) B, D, A, E, C
(b) B, D, A, C, E
(c) D, B, A, E, C
(d) D, A, B, E, C - Computation of income from house property for let-out house, the following items are deducted.
Arrange them in a proper sequence:
(A) Local taxes/Municipal Taxes
(B) Standard deductions
(C) Unrealized Rent
(D) Interest on loan for the period the period to previous year in which the house in completed (in five equal annual instalment)
(E) Interest on loan taken for purchases, construction of repair of the house, relating to the previous year
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B, E, D, C
(b) C, A, B, E, D
(c) A, C, B, E, D
(d) D, A, B, E, C - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Monetary policy on its own cannot influence economic growth but can only support it by creating congenial factors
Statement II : Monetary policy rates change get transmitted across the markets and eventually get reflected in lending rates, mortgage rates and yield. Hence. monetary policy can address the current inflation In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(2) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Statement II is true but Statement I false - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : When holding company more than 50% (but not whole) share of a company, then the holder of the rest of shares will be known as “Minority”. Reason (R) : Minority interest is calculated by considering proportionate shares and reserve of Holding Company. In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the correct explanation
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason(R):
Assertion (A) : The theories of price determination under oligopoly are found to be inapplicable to real life market conditions.
Reason (R) : Real life oligopoly market situation is characterized by small number of sellers, interdependence of decision making. barrier to entry, indeterminate price and output; all leading to wide variety of situations.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Translation exposure refers to the exchange gain or loss occurring from the difference in the exchange rate at the beginning and the end of the accounting period.
Statement II : Translation exposure refers to the change in the value of the firm caused by the unexpected changes in the exchanges rate.
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : If a population from which a sample is to be drawn does not constitute a homogenous group, stratified sampling technique is generally applied in order to obtain a representative sample. Statement II : In the case of small samples, z-test is applied even of the population standard deviation is not available (given).
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect
The economy of India is a mixed, middle-income, developing social market economy. It is the world’s fifth-largest economy by nominal GDP and the third-largest by Purchasing Power Parity (PPP). According to the International Monetary fund (IMF), on a paper capita income basics, India ranked 142nd by GDP (nominal) and 125th GDP (PPP). From Independence in 1947 until 1991, successive governments promoted protectionist economic policies, with extensive state intervention and economic regulation. This is characterized as dirigisme, in the form of the License Raj. The end of the Cold war and an acute balance of payments crisis in 1991 led to the adoption of a board economic liberalization in India. Since the start of the 21st century, annual average GDP growth has been 6% to 7%, and from 2013 to 2018, India was the world’s fastest growing major economy. surpassing China Economy of the Indian subcontinent was the largest in the world for most of the recorded history until the onset of colonialism in early 19th century. Share of India economy is 7.5% of the world economy by PPP term. The long-term growth perspective of the Indian economy remains positive due to its young population and corresponding low dependency ratio, healthy savings and investment rates. increasing globalization in India and integration into the global economy. Nearly 70% of India’s GDP is driven by domestic private consumption. The country remain the world’s sixth- largest consumer market. Apart from private consumption, India’s GDP is also fuelled by government spending. investment. and export India has been a member of the World Trade Organization since 1 January 1995. It ranks 37th on the Ease of Doing Business Index and 37th on the global competitiveness Report. due to extreme rupee/dollar rate fluctuation, India’s nominal GDP too fluctuates significantly. With 50 crores (500 million) workers, the Indian labour force is the world’s second-largest. India has one of the world’s highest number of billionaires and extreme income inequality Because of several exemptions, barely 2% of Indian pay income taxes.
- Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : India has one of the world’s highest number of billionaire and extreme income inequality. Because of several exemptions, barely 5% of Indians pay income taxes
Statement II : With 50 crores (500 million) workers, the Indian labour force is world’s second- largest.
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect - Which of the following is not a correct statement?
(a) The economy of India is a mixed, middle-income, developing social market economy.
(b) India’s GDP is also fuelled by government spending. investment, and export
(c) India has been a member of the World Trade Organization since 1 January 1996
(d) Economy of the Indian subcontinent was the largest in the world for most of the recorded history until the onset of colonialism in early 19th century - Which one of the following is not a supportive factor to the Indian economy’s ling-term growth perspective
(a) Young population and corresponding low dependency ratio
(b) Healthy savings and investment rates
(c) Increasing globalization in India and integration into the global economy
(d) Continuous increasing defence expenditure - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Since the start of the 21st century, annual average GDP growth has been 6% to 7%
Statement II : From 2013 to 2018, India was the world’s fastest growing major economy. surpassing China
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are correct
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are incorrect
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(d) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : Nearly 70% of India’s GDP is driven by domestic private consumption.
Reason (R) : The country (India) remain the world’s sixth- largest consumer market.
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
India began laying the foundation for a more digital economy more than a decade ago with the launch of a national identification program called Aadhaar. The system creates biometric TDs to
establish proof of residence and has been instrumental in digitizing financial transaction, among other benefits. This initiative is now party of India Stack, a decentralized public utility offering a low-cost comprehensive digital identity, payment and data management system. “India Stack is likely to lead to a massive change in how India spend, borrows and accesses healthcare”, says an expert India Stack has broad applications including a network for lowering credit costs, making loans more accessible and affordable for both consumers. credit availability is an important component of economic growth, and “India is currently one of the most under leveraged countries in the world “, say the expert, who team thinks the ratio of credit to GDP could increase from 57% to 100% over the next decade. Indian consumer are also likely to have more disposable income. India’s income distribution could flip over the next decade, and consequently overall consumption in the country could be more than double from $2 trillion in 2022 to $4.9 trillion by the end of the decade – with the greatest gains going to non-grocery retail, including apparel and accessories, leisure and recreation, and household goods and services, among other categories.
- Which one of the following explains Aadhaar?
(a) National Identification program
(b) National Citizenship program
(c) Unified Identification program
(d) Unified census program - Which one of the following describes India Stack better?
(A) A decentralized public utility offering a low-cost comprehensive digital identity,
(B) Payment and data management system
(C) A network for lowering credit costs
(D) A trading platform
Choose the correct answer form the options given below:
(a) A, B and C only
(b) B, C and D only
(c) A, B and D only
(d) A, C and D only - Given blow are two statements:
Statement I : Credit availability is an important component of economic growth.
Statement II : India is currently one of the most under leveraged countries in the world.
In the light of the above statement. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
(a) Both statement I and Statement II are true
(b) Both statement I and Statement II are false
(c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(d) Statement II is true but Statement I false - The system creates biometric TDs to establish proof of residence and has been instrumental in digitizing financial transaction, among other benefits.” The above statement talks about which one of the following
(a) PAN
(b) DIN
(c) Aadhaar
(d) GST - Given blow are two statement: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A) : India’s income distribution could flip over the next decade, .
Reason (R) : overall consumption in the country could be more than double from $2 trillion in 2022 to $4.9 trillion by the end of the decade .
In the light of the above statements. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given blow:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct