UGC NET JRF Commerce 2022 Shift I

UGC NET JRF Commerce 2022 Shift I

  1. Which one of the following is not the assumption for consumer behavior based on the Ordinal Utility Theory
    (a) Rationality of the consumer
    (b) Utility only ordinally measurable
    (c) Safety of demand
    (d) Diminishing marginal rate of substitution
  2. Which one of the following production functions is a long-term production function?
    (a) Q = a+bL – cL^2
    (b) Q = AK^a L^b
    (c) Q = a + bL + cL^2 – dL^3
    (d) Q = a + bL
  3. According to the Contingency Approach, the factors governing the Span of Management are:
    (A) Type of work
    (B) Ability of the manager
    (C) Ability of the employees
    (D) Level of management
    (E) Geographic location
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B and C only
    (b) B, C and D only
    (c) A, D and E only
    (d) A, B, C, D and E
  4. Which one of the following is not a marketing tactic used for designing customer value? i
    (a) Service
    (b) Communication
    (c) Brand
    (d) Incentives
  5. If the assessee is engaged in the business of growing and manufacturing tea in India, the agriculture income in that case shall be:
    (a) 25% of the income of such business
    (b) 40% of the income of such business
    (c) 60% of the income of such business
    (d) 75% of the income of such business
  6. Match List I with List II
    List I PLC Stage
    (A) Decline
    (B) Maturity
    (C) Growth
    (D) Introduction
    List II Pricing Strategy
    (I) Price to match or beat competitors price
    (II) Charge cost-plus price
    (III) Price reduction
    (IV) Price to penetrate market
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (b) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  7. Properties of a good point estimator includes which of the following?
    (A) Stationarity
    (B) Efficiency
    (C) Consistency
    (D) Neutrality
    (E) Unbiasedness
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and C only
    (b) C, D and E only
    (c) A, D and E only
    (d) B, C and E only
  8. Which one of the tests measures the applicant’s level of knowledge and skill in a particular job in which one he will be appointed?
    (a) Personality test
    (b) Achievement test
    (c) Interest test
    (d) Aptitude test
  9. While wandering in jungle, King Dushyant married Shakuntala as narrated in the “Abhigyan Shakuntalam”. He gave her royal ring which could server her identity when she would come to meet him, in future. However, she had lost the ring while going to meet him. When she arrived at Dushyant’s place, he failed to recognize her as she did not had the ring.
    Which of the following statistical error king Dushyant had committed in this narrative
    (a) Type I error
    (b) Type II error
    (c) Sampling error
    (d) Non – Sampling error
  10. Who are not eligible to get information under the RTI Act from the following?
    (A) Corporations
    (B) Associations
    (C) Companies
    (D) Citizens
    (E) Legal entities
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B, D and E only
    (b) A, B, C and E only
    (c) B and D only
    (d) A, D and E only
  11. Which one of the following is not coordinated in the vertical integration of integrated Marketing Communications?
    (a) Pricing
    (b) Sales
    (c) Product development
    (d) Customer service
  12. Which one of the following approaches of capital structure pleads that debt financing initially increases the value of the firm; however excess debt financing beyond a particular point reduces the value of the firm?
    (a) Net Income Approach
    (b) Net Operating Income Approach
    (c) Traditional Approach
    (d) Modigliani-Miller Approach
  13. The contribution margin can be increased by which of the following?
    (A) Increasing the selling price per unit
    (B) Changing the sales mixture and selling more profitable products for which the P/V ratio is higher
    (C) Keeping the marginal cost unchanged
    (D) Increase the amount of fixed assets
    (E) Decreasing the selling price per unit
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B, C and E only
    (b) A, C and D only
    (c) A and B only
    (d) D and E only
  14. Which one of the following is not true for Authority?
    (a) It is the legitimate right of a superior to command and compel his subordinates to perform a certain act.
    (b) It is mostly well-defined, conspicuous and finite.
    (c) It can be delegated.
    (d) It serves as a basis of both formal and informal organizations.
  15. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
    Assertion A: By switching to long-term government bonds the investor acquires and asset whose price fluctuates as interest rates vary.
    Reason R: Bond prices fall when interest rates rise and rise when interest rates fall.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  16. Which section of the Indian Companies Act. 2013 among the following. provides for the appointment of first auditors by the Board of Directors within one month of the date of registration of the company?
    (a) 139(2)
    (b) 139(6)
    (c) 142(1)
    (d) 142(2)
  17. Which one from among the following is not a generic strategy as per the generic strategies identified by porter?
    (a) Market Penteration
    (b) Cost Leadership
    (c) Focus
    (d) Differentiation
  18. Which of the following are include in Salary as per Section 17(1) of the Income Tax Act.
    (A) wages
    (B) Any pension or annuity
    (C) Any interest from Government securities
    (D) Any gratuity
    (E) Any advance of salary
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B, C and D only
    (b) A, B, C, D and E
    (c) A, B, D and E only
    (d) C and E only
  19. Which one of the following expressions is not correct to calculate the coefficient of correlation between two variables?
    (a) (∑xy)/(N.σx.σy)
    (b) √((byx)(bxy))
    (c) (Cov(x,y))/(σ^2 x.σ^2 y)
    (d) (Cov(x,y))/(σx.σy)
  20. Currency depreciation in the Indian rupee in recent times has largely been attributed to:
    (A) Declining domestic savings
    (B) Increasing FDI flows
    (C) Portfolio out flows
    (D) Higher currency circulation
    (E) Higher imports and debt servicing
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B, and C only
    (b) B, C, and D only
    (c) A and D only
    (d) C and E only
  21. Which of the following statements are true regarding price and output determination under perfect competition?
    (A) A firm is a price taker
    (B) In the long run, a firm is in equilibrium when its AR = MR = LAC = LMC
    (C) A firm is in equilibrium in the short run only when its AC = AR = MR = MC
    (D) A firm reaches its shut-down point when price goes below its AC
    (E) A firm fixes the price of its products when AR = MR
    Choose the correct answer from the options below:
    (a) C and E only
    (b) A and B only
    (c) A, C and E only
    (d) B, C and D only
  22. Which of the following are correctly needed to claim exemptions in respect of HRA?
    (A) Salary
    (B) Place of residence
    (C) Standard rent
    (D) Rent paid
    (E) HRA received
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B, C, D and E only
    (b) A, C, D and E only
    (c) A, B, D and E only
    (d) A, B, and C only
  23. Which one of the following statistical identities are useful in comparing the two regression equations based on different sample sizes?
    (a) Coefficient of determination (r^2)
    (b) coefficient of multiple determination (R^2)
    (c) adjusted R^2 (R^2)
    (d) logistic regression
  24. Match List I with List II
    List I
    Formula for test statistic
    (A) ∑〖(0-E)〗^2/E
    (B) 12/(n(n+1)) ∑(R_j^2)/n_j -3(n+1) μ
    (C) (X-μ) ̅/SE
    (D) (SS between)/(SS within)List II
    Test
    (I) Z-test
    (II) H-test (Kruskal-Wallis test)
    (III) F-test (ANOVA)
    (IV) Chi-square test
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
    (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
    (d) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  25. 74. Match List-I with List II
    List I
    Entrepreneurial Theory
    (A) Thomas Cocharan’s Theory
    (B) Rotter’s Locus of Control Theory
    (C) McLelland’s Theory
    (D) Max Webber’s Theory
    List II
    Description
    (I) Highlight the self confidence of a person and the dependency on fortune and external environment for becoming an entrepreneur
    (II) Religious reliefs are the driving or restraining forces for entrepreneurial activity
    (III) The environment in which an individual is brought up determines his entrepreneurial urge
    (IV) The need for achievement (nAch) drives and stimulate entrepreneurship
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (a) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (b) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    (c) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
    (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  26. A is entitled to children education allowance @ Rs. 80 p.m. per child, for three children, it amounts to Rs. 240 p.m. It will be exempted to the extent to which one of the following under the Indian Income Tax Act?
    (a) Rs. 200 p.m.
    (b) Rs. 160 p.m.
    (c) Rs. 240 p.m.
    (d) Rs. 300 p.m.
  27. Logically sequence the following stages in the organisational life cycle of a business firm:
    (A) Expansion
    (B) Survival
    (C) Consolidation
    (D) Start-up
    (E) Decline
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) D, A, C, B, E
    (b) B, C, A, D. E
    (c) D, B, C, A, E
    (d) D, B, A, C, E
  28. Which among the following information shall be disclosed for all public issues of shares irrespective of their issue price?
    (A) Earning per share
    (B) Dividend payout ratio
    (C) Pre-issue P/E ratio
    (D) Average return on net worth in last 3 years
    (E) Net asset value per share based on last balance sheet
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (a) A, B, D and E only
    (b) A, C, D and E only
    (c) B, C, D and E only
    (d) A, B, C and D only
  29. Match List-I List-II
    List-I
    Type of costing
    (A) Marginal Costing
    (B) ABC Costing
    (C) Target Costing
    (D) Process Costing
    List-II
    Description
    (I) Integrated approach to determine product features, product price, product costs and product design that helps ensure a company to earn reasonable profit on new products.
    (II) The amount of any given volume of output by which the aggregate costs are changed if the volume of output is increased by one unit.
    (III) Used when identical units are produced through and on-going series of production steps.
    (IV) Costing system in which costs being with tracing of activities and then to producing the product.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    (c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
    (d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  30. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (MBTI Framework Jungian Aspects)
    (A) Sensing
    (B) Thinking
    (C) Feeling
    (D) Perceiving
    List-II (Characteristics)
    (I) Relies more on personal values then on impersonal analysis and logic
    (II) Would work with known facts than look for possibilities and relationships
    (III) Likes a flexible, spontaneous way rather than a planned and orderly way of life
    (IV) Relies more on interpersonal analysis and logic than on personal values
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    (b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (c) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (d) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
  31. Which one of the following pricing method is used in regulated industries?
    (a) Mark-up Pricing
    (b) Target-Rate-of-Return-Pricing
    (c) Economic-value-to-Customer Pricing
    (d) Competitive Pricing
  32. Which of the following statements regarding the short-term theory of production and cost analysis are false?
    (A) Economic rent is the same as economic profit
    (B) Imputed cost is the rent of a hired building
    (C) When AC=MC, AC is minimum
    (D) When MC is rising, AC > MC
    (E) Output is optimum when AC=MC
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A and E only
    (b) B and D only
    (c) A, B and C only
    (d) C, D and E only
  33. Amount unutilised in the capital gain scheme for which exemption was claimed under section 54 shall be treated as long-term capital in the previous year?
    (a) In which period of 2 years has expired from the date of deposit
    (b) In which period of 2 years has expired from the date of transfer
    (c) In which period of 3 years has expired from the date of deposit
    (d) In which period of 3 years has expired from the date of deposit
  34. Which one of the following categories of customers are opinion leaders who carefully search for new technologies that might give them a dramatic competitive advantage?
    (a) Early Adopters
    (b) Innovators
    (c) The early majority
    (d) The late majority
  35. Which of the following statements regarding price and output determination under monopoly are correct?
    (A) A Monopoly firm can fix its price anywhere along its demand curve
    (B) Even during short run when a Monopoly firm earns normal profit, it produces less than its optimum capacity.
    (C) The slope of monopoly’s MR curve is twice the slope of its AR curve
    (D) Price discrimination is possible only when demand curves are identical in two markets
    (E) Equilibrium price of a monopolist is always higher than that of a perfectly competitive firm
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, D and E only
    (b) A, B and E only
    (c) B, C and D only
    (d) B, C and E only
  36. Given below are two statements
    Statement I : The probable error (P.E.) of the coefficient of correlation (r) is defined as:
    PE = (l-r^2)/√n
    Statement II : When a null hypothesis is true but the test statistic rejects it, this is known as Type-I error in hypothesis testing.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below
    (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
    (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
    (d) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  37. Portfolio approach to investing is primarily focused on which of the following:
    (a) Diversification
    (b) Value protection
    (c) Return appreciation
    (d) Risk optimisation
  38. Which of the following are the components of Mc kinsey’s 7-S framework?
    (A) Shared values
    (B) Procurement
    (C) Strategy
    (D) Technology Development
    (E) System
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, C and E only
    (b) B, C and E only
    (c) A, B and E only
    (d) B, D and E only
  39. A company does not include the value of skills gained by its employees from training program in its annual financial statements. Which one of the following accounting concepts is being applied in this case?
    (a) Going concern concept
    (b) Money measurement concept
    (c) Revenue recognition concept
    (d) business entity concept
  40. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
    Assertion A: R^2tends to be smaller for cross sectional data than for the time series data.
    Reason R : Wider fluctuations in the cross sectional data cause smaller value ofR^2.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is true but R is false
    (d) A is false but R is true
  41. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I Tariff/subsidy
    (A) Ratification
    (B) Prohibited subsidies
    (C) Actionable subsidies
    (D) Non-actionable subsidies
    List-II Explanation
    (I) They have demonstrably adverse effects on other member countries.
    (II) They act on goods which are contingent upon export performance.
    (III) Replacement of existing non-tariff restrictions.
    (IV) For industrial research is disadvantaged regions.
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
    (b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
    (c) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
    (d) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  42. Arrange the following stages in the marketing process of an enterprise.
    (A) Marketing mix
    (B) Marketing program implementation
    (C) Marketing planning
    (D) Market research
    (E) Control and evaluation of marketing programs
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (a) D, C, A, B, E
    (b) C, B, A, E, D
    (c) B, A, D, C, E
    (d) C, A, D, B, E
  43. Which of the following are the parameters in the financial Inclusion Index in India?
    (A) Affordability
    (B) Availability and usage
    (C) Ease of access
    (D) Transparency and disclosure
    (E) Quality of financial inclusion
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and C only
    (b) C, D and E only
    (c) A, B and D only
    (d) B, C and E only
  44. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Marketing Concept)
    (A) Brand Equity
    (B) Brand Identity
    (C) Brand Image
    (D) Market Potential
    List II (Description)
    (I) The maximum possible demand for a product when marketing expenditure in the industry is infinite
    (II) The metal perception and associations of consumers related to a brand
    (III) The peculiar distinguishing color, design, label of a brand which distinguish brand of a firm
    (IV) A pool of goodwill consumers have related to a brand
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (b) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
    (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  45. Which one of the following is not the guiding principle of World Bank regarding its landing operation?
    (a) Proper assessment of the represent prospectus of loans.
    (b) Landing should be only for specific projects which are economically and technically sound and of a high priority nature.
    (c) The lending should be to enable a country to meet foreign exchange content of the project cost.
    (d) The bank does expect the borrowing country to spend the loan in a particular country.
  46. When the price increase of a commodity is followed by increased total revenue, which one of the following is the price elasticity coefficient?
    (a) Zero
    (b) Equal to one
    (c) More than one
    (d) Less than one
  47. RBI financial inclusion index (FI-Index) quality parameter captures information on which of the following:
    (A) Financial literacy
    (B) Consumer protection
    (C) Easy of access
    (D) Availability and usage
    (E) Inequality and deficiency in service
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and C only
    (b) C, D and E only
    (c) A, D and E only
    (d) A, B and E only
  48. Which of the following companies cannot be a ‘Small Company’?
    (A) A holding company or a subsidiary company
    (B) A company registered under section 8
    (C) A company or body corporate governed by any Special Act
    (D) One Person Company (OPC)
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B and C only
    (b) A, B and C only
    (c) B, C and D only
    (d) A and D only
  49. Which one of the following distributions aptly describes the ownership of income and property in a capitalist economy?
    (a) Normal distribution
    (b) Poisson distribution
    (c) F- distribution
    (d) Pareto distribution
  50. Sweezy’s kinked demand curve model to explain the price and output determination relates to which type of market structure?
    (a) Perfect Competition
    (b) Monopolistic Competition
    (c) Monopoly
    (d) Oligopoly
  51. Which of the following factors restrain globalization?
    (A) International economic integration
    (B) Nationalism
    (C) Emerging trade barriers
    (D) Regulatory controls
    (E) Move towards free marketing systems
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A and E only
    (b) C, D and E only
    (c) B, C and D only
    (d) A, B and D only
  52. The purpose (aim) of stock split is to
    (A) Increase the number of shares
    (B) Reduce market price per share
    (C) Arrest share price decline
    (D) Encourage wider public ownership
    (E) Reduce impact cost
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and C only
    (b) B and D only
    (c) B, C and E only
    (d) A, D and E only
  53. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Economic framework)
    (A) Stackelberg model
    (B) Nash equilibrium
    (C) Peter’s strategic framework
    (D) Prisoner’s delima
    List-II (Description)
    (I) The situation in which each player in an oligopolistic markets adopts its dominant strategy but could do by cooperating
    (II) Conceptualisation for identifying the structural determinants of the intensity of competition and the probability of firms in oligopolistic industries
    (III) If firms are disproportionally powerful the market leader makes the first move and captures two-thirds of market share while follower firm gets only a third of the market share
    (IV) A situation in which each player has chosen his/her optional strategy given the strategy chosen by the other player
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (b) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
    (d) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  54. Arrange the following steps in the design thinking process for an innovative solution to a problem:
    (A) Ideate
    (B) Test
    (C) Empathize
    (D) Define
    (E) Prototype
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, D, C, B, E
    (b) B, C, A, D, E
    (c) C, D, A, E, B
    (d) C, B, A, E, D
  55. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
    Assertion A: an export processing zone is different from free trade zone as it promotes units primarily devoted to exports.
    Reason R : Goods imported to a free trade zone may be re-exported without any processing, in the same form. But goods exported by units in an EPZ are expected to have undergone some value edition by manufacturing.
    In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
    (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
    (b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
    (c) A is correct but R is not correct
    (d) A is not correct but R is correct
  56. Which of the following issues are covered in Social Marketing?
    (A) Tobacco
    (B) Family planning
    (C) Public health
    (D) Financial well-being
    (E) Social good
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A and B only
    (b) A, B and C only
    (c) C, D and E only
    (d) A, B, C, D and E only
  57. Arrange the procedure followed for disbursement of export credit in a sequence from the first to the last the
    (A) The bank release the funds debiting to the packing credit amount and credit to the exporter’s account
    (B) The bank calculates the amount of packing credit to be granted
    (C) The exporter would be required to send the goods through approve transport and forwarding agency
    (D) The exporter is required to take adequate insurance
    (E) Submit an evidence of export
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B, A, E, D, C
    (b) A, C, B, D, E
    (c) A, B, C, D, E
    (d) E, B, A, C, D
  58. A company has 10% perpetual debt of Rs.1,00,000. The tax rate is 35%. Which one of the following is the after-tax cost of capital assuming that the debt issued at 10% premium?
    (a) 10%
    (b) 5.91%
    (c) 6.5%
    (d) 7.22%
  59. Concentration of all marketing efforts on a small but specific and will defined segment of the population is called:
    (a) Niche marketing
    (b) Franchising
    (c) Ambush marketing
    (d) Viral marketing
  60. SEBI’s ‘Skin the game’ rule is applicable to which of the following financial intermediaries?
    (a) Merchant bankers
    (b) Financial advisors
    (c) Mutual funds
    (d) Brokerages
  61. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I (Statistical identity)
    (A) Power of test
    (B) Standard error
    (C) P – value
    (D) F – test
    List-II (Description)
    (I) Maximum level of significance at which the null hypothesis would be accepted
    (II) Test of significance of regression equation
    (III) Standard deviation of an estimate for a sample
    (IV) The probability that test will lead to rejection of null hypothesis when it is false
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
    (b) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
    (c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (d) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
  62. Which one of the following is used for international money transfer?
    (a) RTGS
    (b) NEFT
    (c) SWIFT
    (d) IMPS
  63. Which is the single most important driver of innovation (Gerard. J. Tellis 2013) in a business firm ?
    (a) Labour
    (b) Capital
    (c) Government
    (d) Culture
  64. Arrange the following steps in a logical sequence of the process of management audit.
    (A) Identification of responsibility centres
    (B) Review of organisational structure
    (C) Reporting
    (D) Identifying and segregating the objective of business
    (E) Review of performance of each responsibility centre
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, D, E, C, B
    (b) A, E, D, B, C
    (c) A, B, E, D, C
    (d) D, B, A, E, C
  65. Pricing practice of setting a price target and then developing a product that would allow the firm to maximise total profit at that price is called :
    (a) Price ceiling
    (b) Price matching
    (c) Price lining
    (d) Price power
  66. The MM hypothesis of the irrelevance of dividends is based on which of the following critical assumptions?
    (A) Investors are able to forecast future prices and dividend with certainty
    (B) The firm has a given investment policy which does not change
    (C) All financing is done through retained earnings
    (D) There are no taxes
    (E) Perfect capital markets in which all investors are rational
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B and C only
    (b) C, D and E only
    (c) A, B, D and E only
    (d) B, C, D and E only
  67. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I Objectives of business firms
    (A) Sales Revenue maximization
    (B) Maximization of Firm’s growth rate
    (C) Long-term survival
    (D) Satisfying behaviour
    List-II Suggested by
    (I) K.W. Rothschild
    (II) Cyert and March
    (III) W. J. Baumol
    (IV) Robin Marris
    Choose the correct answer from the office given below:
    (a) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
    (b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
    (d) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  68. Arrange the following ratios in the increasing order of their significance in the prediction of industrial sickness (Altman, 1966):
    (A) (Working capital)/(Total Assets)
    (B) (Retained Earnings)/(Total Assets)
    (C) (Earning Before Interest and Taxes)/(Total Assets)
    (D) (Market value of Equity)/(Book Value of Total Debt)
    choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (a) D, E, A, B, C
    (b) C, E, B, D, A
    (c) B, D, C, A, E
    (d)E, B, D, C, A
  69. Which of the following are the properties of Binomial distribution?
    (A) May be symmetrical of skewed
    (B) Uni-modal bell-shaped and symmetrical
    (C) Asymptotic to the x-axis
    (D) n and p are the two parameters
    (E) μ and σ are the two parameters
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B and E only
    (b) A and D only
    (c) C and E only
    (d) B, C and D only
  70. Which one of the following aims at the Task Dimension of organisational change?
    (a) Broadening or narrowing span of control
    (b) Diversifying into additional business
    (c) Improving the efficiency of machines
    (d) Reallocation authority
  71. Which of the following are the essential elements of defining a business?
    (A) Dealers
    (B) Products
    (C) Markets
    (D) Competitors
    (E) Functions
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B, C and E only
    (b) A, B and E only
    (c) B, C and D only
    (d) B and D only
  72. Multicollinearity in the regression analysis is measured by:
    (a) Tolerance (1 – R^2)
    (b) Homoscedasticity
    (c) Partial F-test
    (d) Durbin-Whatson statistic
  73. Which one of the following statements is false?
    (a) Arithmetic mean is used to measure the deviations in calculating standard deviation due to its least square property
    (b) Z- score value of ‘x’ is the ratio between ‘X’ dividend by mean
    (c) The coefficient of variation is calculated as follows: X/σ X100
    (d) Standard deviation can be equal to zero in some situations.
  74. Which one of the following duties is not a general duty of directors of a company?
    (a) Duty of good faith in order to promote the object of the company
    (b) Duty of due and reasonable care, skill and diligence hand shall exercise independent judgment.
    (c) Duty to attend Board Meetings
    (d) Duty not to delegate or assign is office assignment.
  75. Which of the following business would most likely use job order costing: and
    (a) A brewery
    (b) An oil refinery
    (c) A company that makes frozen pizzas
    (d) A print shop that specializes in wedding invitations
  76. What is the correct sequence in “Hierarchy of effects” model in a communication situation:
    (A) Preference
    (B) Purchase
    (C) Awareness and knowledge
    (D) Conviction
    (E) Liking
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, D, B, C, E
    (b) D, B, E, C, A
    (c) B, A, D, C, E
    (d) C, E, A, D, B
  77. Given below are two statements
    Statement I : In the case of Life Insurance, the insurable interest must be present in the person insured at the time when the event happened
    Statement II : In the case of Fire Insurance, the insurable interest must be present in the object insured at the time when the policy is taken and the event has happened
    In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
    (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
    (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
    (c) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
    (d) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
  78. Sequence the procedure for e-filing of ITR-1 and ITR-2
    (A) Login
    (B) Register
    (C) Verification
    (D) Downloading utility and preparing the Return
    (E) e-Filling Income Tax Return
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, E, B, D, C
    (b) B, A, D, E, C
    (c) B, A, C, D, E
    (d) A, B, C, D, E
  79. The information with respect to a company is:
    EBIT = Rs.35 lakhs
    15% Term loan = Rs.50 lakhs
    Working capital term loan from bank @20%=Rs.30lakhs
    10% Preference share capital = Rs. 10lakhs
    Public deposits accepted @ 14% = Rs.15lakhs
    which one among the following is the interest coverage Ratio for the company?
    (a) 0.45
    (b) 1.98
    (c) 2.24
    (d) 2.59
  80. Which one of the following represents empirical generalisation relating to GDP growth and changes in unemployment?
    (a) Philips curve
    (b) Misery index
    (c) Pareto distribution
    (d) Okun’s Law
  81. Out of the following statements, which are not true in respect of a Limited Liability Partnership?
    (A) There must be at least one ‘Designated member’ at all times.
    (B) Designated members do not have the same rights and duties as any other member.
    (C) There is no specific requirement to have any non-designated members.
    (D) A Limited Liability Partnership may be established such that all members are considered to be designated members
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, C and D only
    (b) A and B only
    (c) B and D only
    (d) B, C and D only
  82. Which of the following forces push up the productivity of employees in an organization?
    (A) Difficulty of work
    (B) Fear for working self out of job
    (C) Egoistic drive to accomplish
    (D) Desire for promotion
    (E) Motive towards doing work
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A and B only
    (b) B, C and D only
    (c) A, D and E only
    (d) C, D and E only
  83. Which one of the following rights is usually not available to a partner consequent to the dissolution of a firm?
    (a) Right of equitable distribution of firm’s property
    (b) Right to return of premium on premature winding up
    (c) Right to be consulted
    (d) Right to restrain any partner of his representatives from the use of firm name or firm property
  84. Match List-I with List-II
    List-I Characteristic Business
    (A) Cash Cows
    (B) Crown Jewels
    (C) Fallen Angels
    (D) White Squire
    List-II Description
    (I) The most valuable segments of a company; the parts most wanted by an acquirer
    (II) A third party friendly to management who helps a company avoid an unwanted takeover with taking over the company on its own
    (III) A BCG term of business segment which have a high market share in low growth markets
    (IV) A bond issued at investment grade whose rating is subsequently dropped to below the investment grade
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
    (b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
    (c) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
    (d) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  85. On which of the following bases buyers are divided in psychographic segmentation
    (A) Loyalty status
    (B) Life style
    (C) Buyer-readiness stage
    (D) Values
    (E) User status
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) B and D only
    (b) A, B and D only
    (c) B, C and E only
    (d) A, C, D and E only
  86. The share capital of an RRB is subscribed by the Central Government, State Government and the Sponsoring Bank in which one of the following ratios?
    (a) 40:40:20
    (b) 50:15:35
    (c) 50:35:15
    (d) 60:30:10
  87. When the incoming partner cannot bring premium for goodwill, then the necessary adjustment for goodwill is done through which one of the following?
    (a) Goodwill account of the partners
    (b) Capital account of the new partners
    (c) Balance sheet of the new partnership firm
    (d) Profit & Loss Appropriation account
  88. As per which one of the following approaches, a firm finances a part of its permanent working capital with short term financing?
    (a) Matching Approach
    (b) Conservative Approach
    (c) Aggressive Approach
    (d) Traditional Approach
  89. Arrange the following process of making of a contract in the chronological sequence from the first to the last.
    (A) Agreement
    (B) Promise
    (C) Offer or proposal
    (D) Contract
    (E) Acceptance
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) C, E, B, A, D
    (b) A, D, E, C, B
    (c) B, D, C, A, E
    (d) E, B, A, C, D
  90. Which of the following cannot use ITR-1 form to file return under the Indian Income Tax Act?
    (A) An individual who is director in a company.
    (B) An individual who has any asset located outside India.
    (C) An individual whose total income does not exceed Rs. 50.00.000
    (D) An individual who has income from any source outside India
    (E) An individual who has any unlisted equity shares at any time during the previous year
    Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
    (a) A, B, C and D only
    (b) A, B, D and E only
    (c) A, C and E only
    (d) B, C and E only

Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow
The Monetary Policy Committee of the RBI should neither rise policy rates nor wind up its accommodative policy stance. Yes, inflation has been on the rise, and growth has been setting in. This is the time to consolidate growth, not to be spooked by transient, supply-constrained inflation. Choking off supply-side price shocks is self – defeating. Higher prices will curb demand and stimulate additional supplies, if the prices are allowed to work their way through the system, instead of being choked of through demand suppression. It is only the second-order effect of price shocks in energy, logistics and labour that call for curtailment of demand via higher interest rates
Far from their being any sign of excess demand, the latest available national income figures suggest squeezed consumption and constrained investment. GDP this fiscal would struggle to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20. The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly unsuited for inflation caused by supply disruptions and a spike in energy prices. The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy bears in India. Both the Centre and the states should share the tax cuts. They should take this action, even as they strive to find common ground on bringing energy under the goods and services tax. The government also has the cushion of relatively high import duties that can be pared, to lower prices. Stepping up production to increase supplies is another part of supply-constrained inflation.
There are measures the RBI can take to increase access to credit by micro, small and medium enterprises, other than enhancing liquidity in general in the hope that some would find its way to the small sector. The RBI can do its bit to realise the government mandate for all large companies to purchase their inputs from the Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS), for example, if that improves trade finance significantly, Some reduction in liquidity would not matter.
91. Which one of the following is most desirable to consolidate growth?
(a) Reduce interest rate
(b) Increase interest rate
(c) Suppression of demand
(d) Stimulate additional supply
92. Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Both the Centre and the States should share the tax cuts equally
(b) GDP this fiscal would find it difficult to recover the size attained at the end of 2019-20
(c) Curtailment of demand via higher interest rates can be used in a limited way
(d) Choking of supply-side price shocks will affect growth adversely
93. Which one of the following is the cause of inflation as per the passage?
(a) Reduction in interest rate
(b) Increase in cost
(c) Supply disruptions
(d) Increase in demand
94. Which of the following measures the RBI can take to consolidate growth?
(a) Reduce tax on fuel price
(b) Reduce import duty
(c) Increase access to credit by MSMEs
(d) Absorb price increased by providing subsidies
95. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: The policy response appropriate for inflation caused by excess demand would be wholly suited for inflation caused by a spike in energy prices.
Reason R: The right way to combat elevated inflation right now is to reduce the burden of taxes that energy beers in India.
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options give below:
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is correct but R is not correct
(d) A is not correct but R is correct

Study the given table and answer the five questions that follow
The following information is available with respect to a company manufacturing a particular product.
Sale price (per unit) Rs.20
Variable manufacturing cost per unit Rs.11
Variable selling cost per unit Rs.3
Fixed factory overheads (per year) Rs.5,40,000
Fixed selling cost (per year) Rs.2,52,000
On the basis of the above information answer the questions that follow:
96. Which one of the following is desired sales (rupees) to earn a profit of Rs.1,20,000?
(a) Rs.26,40,000
(b) Rs.30,40,000
(c) Rs.15,20,000
(d) Rs.26,40,000
97. Which one of the following is PV ratio for the company?
(a) 1.82%
(b) 1.43%
(c) 30%
(d) 33%
98. Which one of the following is the break-even point in units for the company?
(a) 1,32,000 units
(b) 38,576 units
(c) 84,000 units
(d) 72,000 units
99. Which one of the following is desired sales volume in units to earn a profit of Rs. 60,0000?
(a) 93,667 units
(b) 2,64,000 units
(c) 1,32,000 units
(d) 1,42,000 units
100. Which one of the following is the break-even point in terms of rupees?
(a) Rs.18,00,000
(b) Rs.26,40,000
(c) Rs.38,57,600
(d) Rs.13,20,000

error: Content is protected !!