- Which one of the following approaches of human resource accounting was suggested by Brummet, Flamholtz and Pyle
(a) Replacement Cost Approach
(b) Historical Cost Approach
(c) Opportunity Cost Approach
(d) Standard Cost Approach - A firm is exposed to translation loss if it use current exchange rate to translate its assets and liabilities. Which among the following are methods in use in translating assets and liabilities?
(A) Current / Non-Current method
(B) Temporal method
(C) Monetary / Non- monetary method
(d) Current Rate method
(E) Transaction / Non-transaction method
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, D, E Only
(b) B, C, D, E Only
(c) A, B, C, D Only
(d)C, D, E Only - Which of the following issues are addressed by the information technology Act, 2000?
(A) Legal recognition of electronic documents
(B) Redressal of grievances
(C) Offenses and contraventions
(D) Disputes settlements
(E) Justice dispensation system for cyber crimes
Co the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) A, C, D Only
(b) C, D, E Only
(c) B, D, E Only
(d) A, C, E Only - Sequence the following steps to compute tax where there is agricultural income also.
(A) Add agriculture income and non agriculture income and calculate tax on aggregate as if such aggregate income is the total income.
(B) Add agricultural income to the maximum exemption limit available in the case of assessee and compute tax on such amount as if it is total income.
(C) Deduct the amount of Income tax as computed (D) from the tax computed from (A)
(D) Claim rebate u/s 87 (A) if applicable
(E) Add surcharge if applicable along with the Health and Education cess@4%
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, A, C, D, E
(b) B, A, D, C, E
(c)A, B, D, C, E
(d) A, B, C, D, E - The most significant And widely-used country risk ratings in International Business Risks are given by which of the following?
(A) Business Environment Risk Intelligence (BERI) Index
(B) Economist Intelligence Unit (EIU) Indices
(C) National Cetre for Trade Information (NCTI)
(D) India Trade Promotion Organisation (ITPO)
(E) PRS Group’s International Country Risk Guide
Choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a) A, C only
(b) A, B and E only
(c) A, D, E only
(d) C, D, E only - Match List I with List II
List I
Earnings-Valuation ratios
(A) Price _ Earnings (P-E) ratio
(B) Earnings Yield Ratio
(C) Price-Book (P/B) ratio
(D) Relative P/E ratio
List II
Underlying Description(s)
(I) Stock price divided by accounting net worth
(II) Firm’s P/E ratio divided by an index P/E ratio
(III) Stock price divided by the earnings per share
(IV) Earning per share divided by stock price
choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(c) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - The Central Bank can significantly influence the savings, investments and consumer spending in the economy through which one of the following policies?
(a) Fiscal policy
(b) Monetary policy
(c) Industrial policy
(d) Foreign exchange policy - Which of the following are subsidiaries of RBI
(A) National Housing Bank (NHB)
(B) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
(C) Export Import Bank (EXIM Bank)
(D) Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation of India(DICGC)
(E) Bhartiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited(BRBNMPL)
choose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, B, C, D Only
(b) A, B, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D, E Only
(d)A, C, E Only - Which one of the following measures the central tendency is not affected by the presence of extreme value in the data of the distribution?
(a) Arithmetic average
(b) Geometric average
(c) Positional average
(d) Harmonic average - Which one of the following is not an advantage in case of product-based departmentalization?
(a) It leads to continuous and undivided attention to the product
(b) Requires less number of managerial personal to be employed
(c) It enables top management to compare the performances of different products
(d) It motivate departmental head to improve his performance - Which one of the following tests measure the applicant’s capacity to learn the skill required for a job?
(a) Aptitude test
(b) Interest test
(c) Intelligence test
(d) Personality test - Which one of the following is not the assumption for consumer behaviour based on the credential utility approach?
(a) Maximization of satisfaction
(b) Utility cardinally measurable
(c) Diminishing marginal utility of money
(d) Utility is additive - Which of the following assumptions from the basis of the MM Hypothesis in stating irrelevance of capital structure regarding weighted average cost of capital remaining constant?
(A) Perfect capital markets
(B) Heterogeneous risk class
(C) Absence of taxes
(D) Full dividend payout
(E) Same expectation of firm,s EBIT with which two evaluate the value of a firm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D, E Only
(b) A, C, D, E Only
(c) A, B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, D, E Only - Which one of the following is a method of converting a non-productive, inactive asset (i.e. receivable) into a productive asset (viz, cash) by selling receivables to a company that specialized in their collection and administration?
(a) Bills discounting
(b) Underwriting
(c) Guaranteeing
(d) Factoring - Arrange the following in the winding ka process of a company by tribunal in chronological sequence from the first to the last.
(A) Settlement of list of contributories and application of assets
(B) Submission of report by company liquidator
(C) Petition for winding up
(D) Direction of Tribunal on report of company liquidator
(E) Appointment of company liquidator
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) E, B, A, C, D
(b) A, E, B, C, D
(c) C, E, B, D, A
(d) B, D, C, A, E - Limited liability partnership may be wound up by which one of the following
(a) Voluntary
(b) By the Registrar, if the firm fails to file annual return in the prescribed form with the Registrar of Companies within 60 days of closer of the financial year
(c) By the Tribunal established under the Companies Act, 2013
(d) Either voluntarily or by the tribunal established under the Companies Act, 2013 - Which of the following measures inflation in ecosystem?
(A) Phillips curve
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Misery Index
(D) GDP deflator
(E) Fisher effect
Choose the correct most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) B, C, and D Only
(c) B, C and E Only
(d) B and D Only - Which of the following may be the reasons for a material usage variance?
(A) Negligence in the use of materials
(B) Changes in basic prices of materials
(C) Poor or improper machine handling
(D) Wastage due to inefficient production methods
(E) Change in product design requiring usages different from the standard
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D Only
(b) B, C, D, E Only
(c) A, C, D, E Only
(d) A, B, D, E Only - Arrange the following process in a proper sequence to conduct scientific research:
(A) Induction
(B) Making prediction
(C) Observation of facts
(D) Testing of prediction
(E) Development of explanations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, E, D
(b) C, A, E, B, D
(c) E, A, B, C, D
(d) A, D, B, C, E - Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A : There is a change in the profit sharing ratio of the old partners when a new partner gets his share or profit from all partners
Reason R : When a new partner is admitted into the partnership for a certain share of profit, the combined shares of the old partners will be reduced
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true - Which one of the following statement is correct regarding the Negotiable Instrument Act in India?
(a) A cheque is always drawn on a banker
(b) A cheque requires the acceptance by the drawee
(c) A bill of exchange can be drawn payable to bearer on demand
(d) A promissory note containing a conditional promise to pay is a valid promissory note - If the firm are competitive and profit maximizing the demand curve for labour is determined by which one of the following?
(a) the opportunity cost of labour time
(b) the value of the marginal product of labour
(c) offsetting income and substitution effects
(d) the value of the marginal product of capital - Which one of the following is not coordinated in the horizontal integration of Integrated Marketing Communications?
(a) Packaging
(b) Customer Service
(c) Sales Promotion
(d) Distribution - Which one of the following relationships regarding price elasticity coefficient with change in price and change in total revenue is incorrect?
- Tax audit is compulsory in the case of a person carrying on professor and whose gross receipts exceeds which one of the following?
(a) ₹ 60 lakhs
(b) ₹ 1 crore
(c) ₹ 40 lakhs
(d) ₹ 50 lakhs - Match List I with List II
List I
(A) Appointment of auditors by CAG
(B) Qualification and disqualifications of auditors
(C) Powers and duties of auditors
(D) Remuneration of auditors
List II
(I) Section 139(5)
(II) Section 141
(III) Section 142
(IV) Section 143
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV - Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
Assertion A : ‘Lien’ is the right to retain possession of goods and refuse to deliver them to the buyer until the price due in respect of them is paid or tendered.
Reason R : An unpaid seller in possession of goods sold is entitle to exercise his lien on the goods where the goods have been sold without any stipulation as to credit
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Banks are not required to deduct the TDS from depositors who have submited declaration in which one of the following forms under the Income Tax Rule, 1962
(a) Form 16(A)
(b) Form 16(H)
(c) Form 15(G)
(d) Form 15(A) - Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Distribution channels are sets of interdependent organizations participating in the process of making a product available for consumption.
Statement II : All marketing channels have the potential for conflict and competition resulting from goal incompatibility.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are falls
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true - In comparison to domestic equity investment foreign equity investment would be preferred if it offers in which of the following situations?
(a) Higher dividend yield and high rate of capital appreciation
(b) Lower dividend yield and lower rate of capital appreciation
(c) Higher dividend yield and lower rate of capital appreciation
(d) Lower dividend yield and high rate of capital appreciation - Residential status in Indian Income Tax Act is determined for which one of the following?
(a) Previous year
(b) Assessment year
(c) Accounting year
(d) Both previous and assessment year - Who among the following Economists suggested the Sales Revenue Maximization as an alternative objective of a business firm?
(a) K. W. Rothschild
(b) Cyert and March
(c) Robin Marris
(d) W. J. Baumol - In the case of two production-inputs which one of the following is not a property of Isoquants (the production indifference curves)?
(a) Negative slope
(b) Concave to the point of origin
(c) Non-intersecting and non- tangential
(d) Upper isoquants represent higher level of output - Arrange the following pricing strategies and other practices as per the life- cycle of a new product of which no close substitute are available.
(A) Gradual rise in price
(B) Product improvement and market segmentation
(C) Gradual reduction in price to retain sales
(D) Skimming pricing
(E) Large price cuts
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) D, A, B, E, C
(b) E, C, A, B, D
(c) B, D, C, A, E
(d) D, A, B, C, E - Rearrange the steps followed in evaluating an investment proposal using NPV method:
(A) Calculate the present value of cash flows
(B) Identify and appropriate discount rate
(C) forecasting cash flows
(D) Rank the projects as per NPV
(E) Compute the net present value
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, E, A, D, C
(b) A, B, C, D, E
(c) C, B, A, E, D
(d) D, A, C, B, E - Which is the most appropriate mode of entry in international business to an enterprise with little experience of International Markets?
(a) Acquisition
(b) Exporting
(c) Strategic Alliance
(d) Joint Venture - 87. Which of the following samples are non random or non-probability samples?
(A) Systematic sample
(B) Quota sample
(C) Cluster or area sample
(D) Purposive sample
(E) Replicated sample
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C Only
(b) B, C D Only
(c) A, D, E Only
(d) B, D Only - Which of the following statements are false regarding price and output determination under perfect competition?
(A) A firm is a price taker
(B) In the long run, a firm is in equilibrium when its AR= LAC=LMC
(C) A firm is in equilibrium in the short run only when its AC=AR=MR=MC
(d) A firm reaches its shut-down point when price goes below its AC
(E) A firm fixes the price of its products when AR=MR
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) C, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, E Only - Heckscher-Ohlin Theory of factor endowment suggests which of the following types of relationships?
(A) Production – marketing relationship
(B) Land – Labour relationship
(C) Marketing – Capital relationships
(D) Labour – Capital relationships
(E) Technological complexities
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B Only
(b) B, C Only
(c) B, D, E Only
(d) A, C, E Only - Arrange the time spent in administration in the increasing order by the following personnel:
(A) Works Manager
(B) President
(C) Foremen
(D) Board of Directors
(E) General Manager
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) C, A, E, B, D
(b) D, E, B, A, C
(c) D, E, B, A, C
(d) E, C, A, D, B - Which one of the following customers are risk AVERSE, technology shY and price sensitive ?
(a) Early adopters
(b) Early majority
(c) Late majority
(d) Laggards - Which one of the following is a determinant of Organisational Climate or Culture (OC)?
(a) Leadership style
(b) Decision-making
(c) Innovation and change
(d) Trust - Which of the following are three pillars of BASEL – II?
(A) Minimum Capital Requirements
(B) Supervisory Review
(C) Leverage
(D) Market Discipline
(E) Capital Conservation Buffer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) AQ, C, D Only
(b) A, D, E Only
(c) A, B, D Only
(d) B, C, E Only - Match List I with List II
List I
Type of Agreement
(A) NAMA
(B) GATTs
(C) TRIMs
(D) TRIPs
List II
explanation
(I) Liberation of International Investments
(II) Includes industrial goods, textile, jewellery, fish and fisheries products and manufacturing industries
(III) Liberalisation of trade in goods and services
(IV) Provides monopoly power to owners of intellectual property
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(b) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(c) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I - Which one of the following is the Net Annual Value (NAV) of house for the given details?
Municipal value = ₹ 3,60,000
Fair Rental Value = ₹ 4,00,000
Standard rent = ₹ 5,00,000
Actual Rent (Annual Rent) = ₹ 4,80,000
Municipal Tax = ₹ 12,000 (due but not paid)
(a) ₹ 4,00,000
(b) ₹ 4,80,000
(c) ₹ 4,68,000
(d) ₹ 5,00,000 - Which of the following inputs are considered while deciding economic value to customer pricing?
(A) Buyer’s image of the product performance
(B) Warranty quality
(C) Desired rate of return
(D) Customer demand
(E) Customer support
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a)A, B, E Only
(b) A, C, D Only
(c) B, D, E Only
(d) A, B, C, D Only - Match List I with List II
List I
management style
(A) Task Management
(B) Country Club Management
(C) Impoverished Management
(D) Team Management
List II
Approach
(I) Love conquers all approach
(II) One plus one can add up to three approach
(III) Authority – obedience approach
(IV) Speak no evil, hear no evil, see no evil approach
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(c) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I - Which of the following common difficulties are faced in making decision and implementing?
(A) Non-actionable information
(B) Unsupporting environment
(C) Easy acceptance by subordinates
(D) Ineffective communication
(E) Incorrect timing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B Only
(b) C, D, E Only
(c) A, B, D, E Only
(d) A, B, C, D Only - Which of the following statements regarding short-term theory of production and cost analysis are true?
(A) Economic rent is the same as economic profit
(B) Imputed cost is the rent of higher building
(C) When AC=MC, AC is minimum
(D) When MC is rising, AC>MC
(E) Output is optimum when AC>MC
Chose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, E Only
(b) A, C, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, D, E Only - The potential that a firm’s consolidated financial statements be affected as a result of changes in exchange rates in is called as:
(a) Transaction exposure
(b) Economic exposure
(c) Translation exposure
(d) Operating exposure - Which of the following are the complete experimental research designs?
(A) Factorial design
(B) One group after-only design
(C) Before-after design with one experiment and two control groups
(D) Latin square design
(E) One-group before-after design
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D Only
(b) A, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) B, C, E Only - Which one among the following is not a privilege or right of a holder-in-due course under Negotiable Instrument Act?
(a) Estoppel against denying signature or capacity of prior party
(b) Estoppel against denying original validity of the instrument
(c) Estoppel against denying capacity of the payee to endorse
(d) Estoppel against denying the genuineness or validity of payee’s endorsement - Arrange the following stage in successive order of new product development process.
(A) Concept Development and Testing
(B) Marketing Strategy Development
(C) Idea Screening
(D) Product Development
(E) Test Marketing
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D, E, B
(b) C, A, B, D, E
(c) C, A, D, E, B
(d) A, C, D, B, E - Which of the following products would require intensive modification in the international arena?
(a) tennis racket
(b) Cosmetics
(c) Notebook computer
(d) Camera - Which of the following affect the pricing of a currency option?
(A) Spot exchange rate
(B) Exercise rate
(C) Foreign risk-free rate of return
(D) Domestic risk-adjusted rate
(E) Time of expiration
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, D, E Only
(b) A, C, D, E Only
(c) A, B, C, E Only
(d) A, B, d, E Only - Which of the following are the tax categories under the GST?
(A) 5%
(B) 10%
(C) 12%
(D) 20%
(E) 28%
Chose the correct answer from the options given below
(a) A, D, E Only
(b) B, C, D Only
(c) A, C, E Only
(d) B, D, E Only - Match List I with List II
List I
type of lease
(A) Leveraged lease
(B) Direct Lease
(C) wet Lease
(D) Update lease
List II
Description
(I) Mix of operating and finance lease on full payout basis and provides for the purchase option to the lessee
(II) Financing for servicing and fuel in the aircraft industry
(III) Protects lessee against the rate of obsolescence
(IV) Involves lessor, lessee and financer, lessor provides equity and major amount is provided by the financer as loan
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II - Match List I with List II
List I
Accounting Standard
(A) IND – AS : 1
(B) IND – AS : 8
(C) IND – AS : 28
(D) IND – AS : 34
List II
Description
(I) Investments in Associates and Joint ventures
(II) Presentation of Financial Statements
(III) Interim Financial Reporting
(IV) Accounting policies, changes in Accounting Estimates and Errors
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(d) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II - Through which one of the following influences of workers participation in management regarding ‘safety and welfare and work-related’ issues are resolved?
(a) Information sharing
(b) Bargaining
(c) Consultation
(d) Co-determination - Which of the following variables are considered relevant in behavioral segmentation of consumers?
(A) Life style
(B) User status
(C) Occasions
(D) Values
(E) Loyalty status
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C Only
(b) A, D, E Only
(c) B, C, E Only
(d) A, B, E Only - Which of the following losses are allowed to be carried forward and set off in the subsequent assessment years?
(A) House property loss
(B) Business loss
(C) Speculation loss
(D) Capital loss
(E) Loss on account of owning and maintaining race horses
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B, C, D Only
(b) B, C, D, E Only
(c) A, E Only
(d) A, B, C, D, E - Which one of the following does not fall in the ambit of the objectives of the Competitions Act, 2002 in India?
(a) Encourage competition
(b) Prevent abuse of dominant position
(c) Prevent monopolistic rights arising out of intellectual property
(d) Regulate mergers and acquisitions - According to the Stewardship Theory of Corporate Governance, which of the following statements are relevant?
(A) Governance approach is sociological and psychological
(B) Behaviour pattern is trustworthy
(C) The role of management is to monitor and control
(D) Owners attitude is to take risk
(E) Interest of the manager and principals converge
Choose the most appropriate answer from the option below:
(a) A, D, E Only
(b) A, B, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, B, C, D, E - Which of the following economic identities measure degree of monopoly in an industry?
(A) Stackelberg model
(B) Concentration ratio
(C) Diffusion index
(D) Herfindahl index
(E) Elasticity reciprocal
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) A, B and C Only
(b) B, C and D Only
(c) A, C and E Only
(d) B, D and E Only - Which of the following are the properties of normal distribution?
(A) Maybe symmetrical or skewed
(B) Uni-modal bell-shaped and symmetrical
(C) Asymptotic to the x-axis
(D) n and p are the two parameters
(E) 𝛍 and are 𝛔 two parameters
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D Only
(b) B, C, E Only
(c) A, D, E Only
(d) A, C, E Only - Which one of the following provident funds is set up under Provident Fund Act, 1952?
(a) Statutory Provident Fund
(b) Recognised Provident Fund
(c) Public Provident Fund
(d) Unrecognised Provident Fund - Which of the following statements are true in case of delegation of authority?
(A) It slows down decision-making
(B) It leads to better decisions
(C) It relieves the manager off his heavy work load
(D) It helps create and informal organisation structure
(E) It helps train sub ordinates
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, E Only
(b) A, B, C Only
(c) B, C, E Only
(d) B, C, D, E Only - Which of the following statement(s) are correct?
(A) Asset liability management is a mechanism to address the risk arising due to mismatch of assets and liabilities
(B) Non-performing Assets (NPA) must be written off as loss in the financial year in which NPA has been identified
(C) Undisclosed reserves are included in capital of banks (Tier II) if they represent accumulation of post-tax profits
(D) Bank cannot accept deposits from the public for a period exceeding five years
(E) Hybrid debt capital instruments may be included in Tier II capital
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, D Only
(b) C, D, E Only
(c) B, C, D Only
(d) A, C, E Only - Match List I with List II
List I
Type of test
(A) ANOVA Test
(B) Z-Test
(C) Chi-square Test
(D) Kruskal-Wallis Test
List II
Testing situation
(I) Testing weather a standard probability distribution first well to a given frequency distribution
(II) Parametric Test to test the hypothesis of differences in more than two sample means
(III) Non-parametric test to the test the hypothesis of differences in more than two sample means
(IV) Hypothesis testing for men for large samples when is known or unknown
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(d) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I - Which one of the following is an example of hybrid service offering? massage
(a) Consulting
(b) Massage
(c) Restaurant meal
(d) Car with warranty - Sequence correctly the following steps in PERT/CPM analysis:
(A) Identify the critical path
(B) Draw the network diagram
(C) Establish dependencies across activities
(D) Estimate the completion time of an activity
(E) Define the activities in the network
Options:
(a) B, C, D, E, A
(b) E, C, B, D, A
(c) C, B, E, A, D
(d) A, B, D, E, C - Match List I with List II
List I
PLC Stage
(A) Introduction
(B) Maturity
(C) Growth
(D) Decline
List II
Communication Strategy
(I) Stress, brand differences and benefits and encourage brand switching
(II) Build awareness and interest in the mass market
(III) Reduce to minimal level needed to return customers
(IV) Build product awareness and trial among dealers
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(b) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(c) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III - Which one of the following statements is false?
(a) Regression coefficients are independent of change of origin but not of change of a scale
(b) Both the regression coefficients cannot assume a volume (ignoring algebraic sign) greater than one
(c) Regression coefficient of the two variables may have different algebraic symbols for real life situations
(d) Coefficient of correction is independent of the change of origin and scale of data - Quotas which are the quantitative restrictions on export imports intended at protecting local industries and conserving foreign exchange, include which of the following?
(A) Single stage quota .
(B) Absolute quota
(C) Tariff quotas
(D) Value added quotas
(E) Voluntary Quotas
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) B, C, E Only
(b) A, B, C Only
(c) A, D, E Only
(d) B, C, D, E Only - The examination of documentary evidence in support of transactions contained in the books of accounts is termed as which one of the following?
(a) Verification
(b) Vouching
(c) Valuation
(d) Validation - Arrange the following steps in a proper sequence to develop successful market offering.
(A) The specifics of the market offering
(B) Monitoring goal progress
(C) The ultimate criterion for success
(D) The logistics of creating the offering
(E) The value created in the target market
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, D, E, C, B
(b) C, E, A, B, D
(c) D, A, C, E, B
(d) C, E, A, D, B - According to FEMA foreign exchange does not include which one of the following?
(a) Deposit payable in any foreign currency
(b) Bills of exchange drawn in Indian currency but payable in any foreign currency
(c) Travelers cheques drawn by institutions outside India but payable in Indian currency
(d) Draft drawn by banks outside India and table in foreign currency - Arrange the following steps in the process of concluding and export deal.
(A) Confirm the export deal
(B) Receive letter of credit
(C) Identify and negotiate with importer
(D) Receive an export order
(E) Examine thoroughly and ask for amendment
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A, C, E, D, B
(b) C, A, D, E, B
(c) B, E, A, C, D
(d) D, A, B, C, E - The following information with respect to a company is given below:
Net profit tax = ₹ 1,00,000
10% Preference share capital (₹ 10 each) = ₹ 1,00,000
Equity share capital (₹ 10 each) = ₹ 1,00,000
Taxation at 50% of Net profit
Which one among the following is the earning per share?
(a) Zero
(b) ₹4
(c) ₹10
(d) ₹40 - Match List I with List II
List I
Mode/delivery
(A) Actual delivery
(B) Constructive delivery
(C) Symbolic delivery
(D) Delivery
List II
Explanation
(I) Seller hands over to the buyer the key of the godown where the goods are stored
(II) Physical handing over of the position of goods by the seller to the buyer
(III) Voluntary transfer of possession of goods from seller to buyer
(IV) Acknowledgement by third person on behalf of and at the disposal of the buyer
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(b) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(c) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(d) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III - The profit for the year before appropriation in a partnership firm was Rs. 50,000. Shagun, one of the partners, receive a salary of Rs. 4,000 and interest at ten per cent per annum on his capital of Rs. 1,00,000. Amir, the other partner, receives interest on capital at the same rate as Shagun. Amir’s capital was Rs. 89,000. They share profits and losses equally. What was the total share of profits credited to Amir’s current account?
(a) Rs. 13,500
(b) Rs.15,350
(c) Rs.22,450
(d) Rs.24,350 - Which one of the following summary measures denotes the degree of lopsidedness in a distribution?
(a) Measures of central tendency
(b) Measures of variation
(c) Measures of skewness
(d) Measures of Kurtosis - Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Tax planning promotes professionalism and strengthens economic and political situation of the country.
Statement II : Tax evasion is an act within the permissible range of the Act to achieve social and economic benefits
In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are falls
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true - A project requires an initial investment of ₹ 56,125 and its estimated salvage value is ₹ 3,000. The annual estimated income after depreciation and tax for its entire life of 5 years are ₹ 3,375, ₹5,375, ₹ 7,375 and ₹ 11,375 respectively. Which one of the following is its average rate of return
(a) 26.28%
(b) 124.74%
(c) 29.94%
(d) 60.88% - Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Every perfectly competitive firm in the long run earns normal profits only.
Reason (R) : Market price gets fully adjusted due to changes in the demand and the supply conditions and the resultant free entry and exit of the firms in the perfectly competitive market, so as only the normal profit persists.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - The safety margin that insurers mast maintain in order to protect the interest of the policy holders is called:
(a) Protection margin
(b) Solvency margin
(c) Profit margin
(d) Cost of risk bearing - What has been the primary motive of Central banks raising interest rates in recent times?
(a) Gaining competitiveness
(b) Taming inflation
(c) Raising employment levels
(d) Currency depreciation - Which one of all the following statements is true?
(a) The sum of absolute deviations measured from Median is the least
(b) If each value in a given series is multiplied by a constant, K, the variance of the new series would be equal to variance of the given series
(c) The variance is the square of the value of the standard deviation divided by mean
(d) Z-score value of ‘X’ is the ratio between ‘X’ divided by mean - In which one of the following modes of entry into foreign markets risk and profit potential are the highest?
(a) Indirect exporting
(b) Joint venture
(c) Direct investment
(d) Direct exporting - Match List I with List II
List I
shape of revenue curve of the firm
(A) Kinked revenue curve
(B) Infinitely elastic straight line curve
(C) Relatively less elastic curve
(D) Relatively high elastic curve
List II
Market structure
(I) Monopolistic competition
(II) Perfect competition
(III) Oligopoly
(IV) Monopoly
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(b) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
(d) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:
The Cabinet approval for seven integrated mega textile and apparel parks pan- India makes eminent sense. It would boost value addition on-site, reaping economies of scale and scope, reduce logistical and sourcing expenses, and generally step up sector-specific competitive advantage across the board.
The value chain yarn, fabrics and ready-made in scattered and quite fragmented nation-wide. So, for instance, while cotton is grown in Gujarat and Maharashtra, spinning takes place in Tamil Nadu, processing gets done in Rajasthan and Gujarat, and garment-making happens mostly in the National Capital Region, Bangaluru and Kolkata. The proposed mega parks, spread over 1,000 acre and more, would provide facilities for weaving, dyeing, printing, fashion designing and garment-making in one location. They would have core infrastructure such as incubation centre, plug-and-play facility, and skill development units so as to keep abreast of the least trends in textiles and apparel. The export potential in textiles is large. We need to build a conducive and innovative ecosystem with proactive policy.
The Centre has recently announced ₹ 10,683 crore production-linked incentive scheme for textiles. The textiles parks scheme would have an outlay of ₹ 4,445 crore, and is slated to provide support for project development in the cluster mode. The recent move to provide export-oriented Units rebate on state and central taxes and levies would also help. But the fact remains that the share of textiles in India’s export basket has declined, and is now barely in the double digits. A recent Crisil study says that absent free trade agreements (FTAs) hurt our export performance. Decent work in the textile parks would gain custom, in today’s world.
- Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Both central and state governments want to promote the units exporting textiles.
Statement II : The performance of textiles in India export basket as improved.
In the light of the statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below:
(a) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are true
(b) Both Statement (I) and Statement (II) are falls
(c) Statement (I) is true but Statement (II) is false
(d) Statement (I) is false but statement (II) is true - Which one of the following will not be a part of value chain in the proposed integrated mega textile and apparel parks?
(a) Garment making
(b) Yarn weaving
(c) Cotton production
(d) Yarn spinning - Which one of the following states does not contribute to Indian textile industry?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Punjab
(d) Tamil Nadu - Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Indian textiles country gain their scene with the setting up of integrated mega text style and apparel parks.
Reason (R) : The value chain in yarn, fabrics and ready-made scattered nation wide.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Which one of the following will be the most critical to the export performance of Indian textiles?
(a) Integrated mega textile and parallel parks
(b) Free trade agreements
(c) Centres production linked incentive schemes
(d) Rebate on state and central taxes and levies to export-oriented units
Read the following paragraph and answer the five questions that follow:
Section 455 of Indian Companies Act, 2013 talks about a New Provision Calls “DORMANT COMPANY. This concept was not there in Companies Act, 1956.
A Dormant Company offers excellent advantage to the promoters who want to hold an asset or intellectual property under the corporate shield for its usage at a later stage. For instance: if a promoter wants to buy lands now for its future project at a comparatively lesser price, he may do the same through dormant company so that he can use the land for its future project. Thus, dormant company status is a new phenomenon in Companies Act 2013 and is an excellent tool for keeping assets in the company for its future usage. A dormant company many be either a public company or a private company or a one person company.
Certain companies, due to the nature of their business, may not be able to start any business, for a long time from the date of incorporation as for instance any business for certain of intellectual property or for a future project and has no significant accounting transaction. Such a company maybe an “Inactive company”. Construction Companies/Real Estate Companies /Incorporate New Companies to hold land/properties for future projects. This concept is beneficial for them. By this concept, they can Incorporate Company and purchase property/land in that company and get status of Dormant Company. If a company gets status of dormant company, there are less compliance in dormant company in comparison of active company. It will help to save cost compiles of inactive companies.
- Dormant company offers excellent advantage to which one of the following?
(a) Bankers
(b) Creditors
(c) Shareholders
(d) Promoters - Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : If a company gets status of a dormant company, then it is subject to less compliance in comparison to active company.
Reason (R) : It will help to save of compliances for Inactive companies when they become dormant company under section 455 of the Companies Act, 2013 as compare to the Companies Act, 1956 .
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct - Which of the following companies do not fall under a purview of Dormant company?
(A) Private company
(B) One person company
(C) Limited and unlimited liability companies
(D) Public company
(E) Government company
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:
(a) B, D, E Only
(b) A, C, D Only
(c) A, B, D Only
(d) B, C, E Only - Which one of the following nature of business is situated to Dormant company?
(a) Shipping business
(b) Manufacturing business
(c) Real Estate business
(d) Pharmaceutical business - Given below are two statements : One is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is labeled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A) : Provision is made to obtain the status of a ‘dormant company’ for a inactive company that doesn’t trade.
Reason (R) : Dormant company doesn’t trade but has significant accounting transaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(d) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct